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Which design consideration must be made when dual vEdge routers are deployed at a branch site?
A. Use BGP AS-path prepending to influence egress traffic and use MED to influence ingress traffic from the branch.
B. HSRP priorities must match the OMP routing policy to prefer one vEdge over the other.
C. Traffic must be symmetrical as it egresses the vEdges and returns from remote sites for DPI to function properly.
D. Configure BFD between vEdge routers to detect sub-second link failures.
Correct Answer: A
Question 3:
How are wireless endpoints registered in the HTDB in a Cisco SD-Access architecture?
A. Fabric edge nodes update the HTDB based on CAPPWAP messaging from the AP
B. Fabric WLCs update the HTDB as new clients connect to the wireless network
C. Border nodes first register endpoints and then update the HTDB
D. Fabric APs update the HTDB with the clients\’ ElD and RLOC
Correct Answer: B
Question 4:
Refer to the exhibit.
The full EIGRP routing table is advertised throughout the network. Currently, users experience data loss when any one link in the network fails. An architect must optimize the network to reduce the impact when a link fails. Which solution should the architect include in the design?
A. Run BFD on the interlinks between EIGRP neighbors.
B. Summarize the access layer networks from each access layer switch toward the aggregation layer.
C. Reduce the default EIGRP hello interval and hold time.
D. Summarize the access layer networks from the aggregation layer toward the core layer.
Correct Answer: A
Question 5:
Which OSPF area blocks LSA Type 3, 4, and 5, but allows a default summary route?
A. normal
B. stub
C. NSSA
D. totally stubby
Correct Answer: D
Question 6:
An engineer uses Postman and YANG to configure a router with: OSPF process ID 400 network 192.168.128.128/25 enabled for Area 0
Which get-config reply verifies that the model set was designed correctly?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
Question 7:
In an SD-WAN architecture, which methods are used to bootstrap a vEdge router?
A. DHCP options or manual configuration
B. manage or DNS records
C. ZTP or manual configuration
D. DNS records or DHCP options
Correct Answer: C
Question 8:
Which type of rendezvous point deployment is standards-based and supports dynamic RP discovery?
A. Auto-RP
B. Anycast-RP
C. bootstrap router
D. static RP
Correct Answer: C
Question 9:
Refer to the exhibit. An architect must create a stable and scalable EIGRP solution for a customer. The design must:
1.
conserve bandwidth, memory, and CPU processing
2.
prevent suboptimal routing
3.
avoid any unnecessary queries
Which two solutions must the architect select? (Choose two.)
A. route summarization
B. prefix lists
C. distribute lists
D. stub routing
E. static redistribution
Correct Answer: AC
Question 10:
Which two functions are provided by the Cisco SD-WAN orchestration plane? (Choose two.)
A. centralized provisioning
B. primary authentication point
C. NAT traversal facilitation
D. Zero Touch Provisioning
E. troubleshooting and monitoring
Correct Answer: BC
Question 11:
At which layer does Cisco Express Forwarding use adjacency tables to populate addressing information?
A. Layer4
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 1
D. Layer 3
Correct Answer: B
Question 12:
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing a BGP solution for a client that peers with ISP1 for full Internet connectivity and with ISP2 for direct exchange of routes for several third parties. Which action, when implemented on the edge routers, enables the client network to reach the Internet through ISP1?
A. Run an eBGP session within different VRFs for each ISP.
B. Advertise a default route for downstream routers within the client network.
C. Apply the AS-path prepend feature for ISP2.
D. Apply route filtering such that the client advertises only routes originating from its own AS.
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the Yang model they describe on the right.
What is the purpose of a Cisco SD-Access underlay network?
A. to abstract IP-based connectivity from physical connectivity
B. to emulate LAN segments to transport Layer 2 frames over a Layer 3 network
C. to establish physical connectivity between switches and routers
D. to provide virtualization by encapsulating network traffic over IP tunnels
Correct Answer: C
…
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An engineer is responsible for a wireless network for an enterprise. The enterprise has distributed offices around the globe, and all APs are configured in FlexConnect mode. The network must be configured to support 802.11r and CCKM. What needs to be implemented to accomplish this goal?
A. Enable VLAN-based central switching.
B. Enable FlexConnect local authentication.
C. Enable FlexConnect local switching.
D. Create FlexConnect groups.
Correct Answer: D
New Question 2:
What is the default IEEE 802.1x AP authentication configuration on a Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller?
A. EAP-PEAP with 802.1x port authentication
B. EAP-TLS with 802.1x port authentication
C. EAP-FAST with CAPWAP DTLS + port authentication
An engineer wants to configure WebEx to adjust the precedence and override the QoS profile on the WLAN. Which configuration is needed to complete this task?
A. Change the WLAN reserved bandwidth for WebEx
B. Create an AVC profile for WebEx
C. Create an ACL for WebEx
D. Change the AVC application WebEx-app-sharing to mark
The IT manager is asking the wireless team to get a report for all guest user associations during the past two weeks. In which two formats can Cisco Prime save this report? (Choose two.)
A. CSV
B. PDF
C. XLS
D. DOC
E. plain text
Correct Answer: AB
New Question 5:
What is an important consideration when implementing a dual SSID design for BYOD?
A. After using the provisioning SSID, an ACL that is used to make the client switch SSIDs forces the user to associate and traverse the network by MAC filtering.
B. If multiple WLCs are used, the WLAN IDs must be exact for the clients to be provisioned and traverse the network correctly.
C. SSIDs for this setup must be configured with NAC State-RADIUS NAC for the clients to authenticate with Cisco ISE, or with NAC State-ISE NAC for Cisco ISE to associate with the client.
D. One SSID is for provisioning and the other SSID is for gaining access to the network. The use of an ACL should not be enforced to make the client connect to the REAL SSID after provisioning.
Correct Answer: D
New Question 6:
For security purposes, an engineer enables CPU ACL and chooses an ACL on the Security > Access Control Lists > CPU Access Control Lists menu. Which kind of traffic does this change apply to, as soon as the change is made?
A. wireless traffic only
B. wired traffic only
C. VPN traffic
D. wireless and wired traffic
Correct Answer: D
New Question 7:
A healthcare organization notices many rogue APs and is concerned about a honeypot attack.
Which configuration must a wireless network engineer perform in Cisco Prime Infrastructure to prevent these attacks most efficiently upon detection?
A. Set the auto containment level to 0 and select the Ad Hoc Rogue AP containment option.
B. Set the auto containment level to 0 and select the Using Our SSID containment option
C. Set the manual containment level to 4 and select the Ad Hoc Rogue AP containment option.
D. Set the auto containment level to 4 and select the Using Our SSID containment option.
Correct Answer: C
New Question 8:
A company has a single WLAN configured for 802.1x authentication with the QoS set to Silver. This WLAN supports all corporate and BYOD access. A decision has been made to allow users to install Cisco Jabber on their personal mobile devices. Users report poor voice quality when using Jabber.
QoS is being applied only as a best effort. What must be configured to ensure that the WLAN remains on the Silver class and to ensure the Platinum class for Jabber?
A. Configure an AVC profile for the Jabber traffic and apply it to the WLAN.
B. Configure the WLAN to broadcast on 5 GHz radios only and allow Jabber users to con.
C. Enable Cisco Centralized Key Management on the WLAN so that the Jabber-enabled devices will connect.
D. Configure QoS on the mobile devices that have Jabber installed.
A wireless engineer needs to implement client tracking. Which method does the angle of arrival use to determine the location of a wireless device?
A. received signal strength
B. triangulation
C. time distance of arrival
D. angle of incidence
Correct Answer: D
New Question 10:
After looking in the logs, an engineer notices that RRM keeps changing the channels for non-IEEE 802. 11 interferers. After surveying the area, it has been decided that RRM should not change the channel. Which feature must be enabled to ignore non-802.11 interference?
A. Avoid Cisco AP Load
B. Avoid Persistent Non-WIFI Interference
C. Avoid Foreign AP Interference
D. Avoid Non-802. 11 Noise
Correct Answer: B
Check the Avoid Non-802.11a (802.11b) Noise check box to cause the controller\’s RRM algorithms to consider noise (non-802.11 traffic) in the channel when assigning channels to lightweight access points, or uncheck it to disable this feature. For example, RRM may have access points to avoid channels with significant interference from nonaccess point sources, such as microwave ovens.
The default value is selected. Check the Avoid Persistent Non-WiFi Interference check box to configure the controller to stop ignoring persistent non-Wi-Fi interference in new channel calculation. The persistent non-Wi-Fi interference is considered during the metric calculation for channels.
A customer has a distributed wireless deployment model where the WLCs are located in the data centers. Because the file servers are located in the data center, the traffic from the corporate WLAN “Corp-401266017” must go through the controllers, where the guest WLAN “Guest-19283746” traffic must use the local Internet line installed in each office. Which configuration will accomplish this task?
A. Disable Local Switching for the corporate and guest WLAN.
B. Disable Local Switching for the corporate WLAN and enable it for the guest WLAN.
C. Enable Local Switching for the corporate and guest WLAN.
D. Enable Local Switching for the corporate WLAN and disable it for the guest WLAN.
Correct Answer: C
New Question 14:
An engineer configured a Cisco AireOS controller with two TACACS+ servers. The engineer notices that when the primary TACACS+ server fails, the WLC starts using the secondary server as expected, but the WLC does not use the primary
server again until the secondary server fails or the controller is rebooted.
Which cause of this issue is true?
A. Fallback is enabled
B. Fallback is disabled
C. DNS query is disabled
D. DNS query is enabled
Correct Answer: B
New Question 15:
Which QoS level is recommended for guest services?
A. gold
B. bronze
C. platinum
D. silver
Correct Answer: B
…
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Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
Which Python code snippet must be added to the script to save the returned configuration as a JSON-formatted file?
A. with open(“ifaces.json”, “w”) as OutFile: OutFile.write(Response. text)
B. with open(“ifaces.json”, “w”) as OutFile: OutFile.write(Response.json())
C. with open(“ifaces.json”, “w”) as OutFile: JSONResponse = JSON.loads(Response.text) OutFile.write(JSONResponse)
D. with open(“ifaces.json”, “w”) as OutFile: OutFile.write(Response)
Correct Answer: B
The JSON() method of the Response interface takes a Response stream and reads it to completion. It returns a promise which resolves with the result of parsing the body text as JSON.
New Question 2:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration must be implemented to establish EBGP peering between R1 and R2?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
New Question 3:
An engineer must configure HSRP group 300 on a Cisco IOS router. When the router is functional, it must be the active HSRP router
The peer router has been configured using the default priority value.
Which three commands are required? (Choose three.)
A. standby 300 timers 1 110
B. standby 300 priority 90
C. standby 300 priority 110
D. standby version 2
E. standby 300 preempt
F. standby version 1
Correct Answer: CDE
New Question 4:
What are the differences between TCAM and the MAC address table?
A. The MAC address table is contained in CAM ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM
B. The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match
C. Router prefix lookups happen in CAM. MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM.
D. TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions CAM is used to build routing tables
When using Ternary Content Addressable Memory (TCAM) inside routers it\’s used for faster address lookup that enables fast routing. In switches Content, Addressable Memory (CAM) is used for building and lookup of mac address table that enables L2 forwarding decisions. Besides Longest-Prefix Matching, TCAM in today\’s routers and multilayer Switch devices are used to store ACL, QoS, and other things from upper-layer processing.
New Question 5:
Which two actions, when applied in the LAN network segment, will facilitate Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery for lightweight AP? (Choose two.)
A. Utilize DHCP option 17.
B. Configure the WLC IP address on the LAN switch.
C. Utilize DHCP option 43.
D. Configure an IP helper address on the router interface
E. Enable port security on the switch port
Correct Answer: CD
In a Cisco Unified Wireless network, the LAPs must first discover and join a WLC before they can service wireless clients.
However, this presents a question: how did the LAPs find the management IP address of the controller when it is on a different subnet?
If you do not tell the LAP where the controller is via DHCP option 43, DNS resolution of “Cisco-capwapcontroller.local_domain”, or statically configure it, the LAP does not know where in the network to find the management interface of the controller.
BGP connectivity exists between Headquarters and both remote sites; however, Remote Site 1 cannot communicate with Remote Site 2. Configure BGP according to the topology to goals:
1.
Configure R1 and R3 under the BGP process to provide reachability between Remote Site 1 and Remote Site 2. No configuration changes are permitted on R2.
2.
Ensure that the /32 networks at Remote Site 1 and Remote Site 2 can ping each other.
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 1.1.1.1, timeout is 2 seconds:
!!!!!
R3#ping 1.1.1.1 source lo0
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 1.1.1.1, timeout is 2 seconds:
A packet sent with a source address of 3.3.3.3
!!!!!
Success rate is 100 percent (5/5), round-trip min/avg/max = 1/1/1 ms
New Question 7:
How does CEF switching differ from process switching on Cisco devices?
A. CEF switching saves memory by sorting adjacency tables in dedicated memory on the line cards, and process switching stores all tables in the main memory
B. CEF switching uses adjacency tables built by the CDP protocol, and process switching uses the routing table
C. CEF switching uses dedicated hardware processors, and process switching uses the main processor
D. CEF switching uses a proprietary protocol based on IS-IS for MAC address lookup, and process switching uses in MAC address table
Correct Answer: B
Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) switching is a proprietary form of scalable switching intended to tackle the problems associated with demand caching.
With CEF switching, the information which is conventionally stored in a route cache is split up over several data structures.
The CEF code is able to maintain these data structures in the Gigabit Route Processor (GRP), and also in slave processors such as the line cards in the 12000 routers.
The data structures that provide optimized lookup for efficient packet forwarding include:
1.
The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table – CEF uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions. The FIB is conceptually similar to a routing table or information base. It maintains a mirror image of the forwarding information contained in the IP routing table. When routing or topology changes occur in the network, the IP routing table is updated, and these changes are reflected in the FIB. The FIB maintains next-hop address information based on the information in the IP routing table.
2.
Because there is a one-to-one correlation between FIB entries and routing table entries, the FIB contains all known routes and eliminates the need for route cache maintenance that is associated with switching paths such as fast switching and optimum switching.
3.
Adjacency table – Nodes in the network are said to be adjacent if they can reach each other with a single hop across a link layer. In addition to the FIB, CEF uses adjacency tables to prepend Layer 2 addressing information. The adjacency table maintains Layer 2 next-hop addresses for all FIB entries.
CEF can be enabled in one of two modes:
1.
Central CEF mode – When CEF mode is enabled, the CEF FIB and adjacency tables reside on the route processor, and the route processor performs the express forwarding. You can use CEF mode when line cards are not available for CEF switching, or when you need to use features not compatible with distributed CEF switching.
2.
Distributed CEF (dCEF) mode – When dCEF is enabled, line cards maintain identical copies of the FIB and adjacency tables. The line cards can perform the express forwarding by themselves, relieving the main processor – Gigabit Route Processor (GRP) – of involvement in the switching operation. This is the only switching method available on the Cisco 12000 Series Router.
CEF uses an Inter-Process Communication (IPC) mechanism to ensure the synchronization of FIBs and adjacency tables on the route processor and line cards.
For more information about CEF switching, see Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) White Paper.
New Question 8:
What function does vxlan perform in an SD-Access deployment?
A. policy plan forwarding
B. control plane forwarding
C. data plane forwarding
D. systems management and orchestration
Correct Answer: C
New Question 9:
An engineer must configure the strongest password authentication to locally authenticate on a router. Which configuration must be used?
A. username netadmin secret 5 $1$b1JUSkZbBS1Pyh4OzwXyZ1kSZ2
B. username netadmin secret $15b1JuSk404850110QzwXyZ1k SZ2
C. line Console 0 password $15b1Ju$
D. username netadmin secret 9 $9$vFpMfBelbRVV8SseX/bDAxtuV
Correct Answer: D
Scrypt is safer than MD5, so answer A is wrong and answer D is correct
R1(config)#username user secret 0 Specifies an UNENCRYPTED secret will follow5 Specifies an MD5 HASHED secret will follow8 Specifies a PBKDF2 HASHED secret will follow9 Specifies a SCRYPT HASHED secret will follow<0-9> Encryption types not explicitly specifiedLINE The UNENCRYPTED (cleartext) user secretLINE The UNENCRYPTED (cleartext) user secret
New Question 10:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that advertises the network prefox 192.168.5.0 session. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 11:
A network engineer is configuring Flexible Netflow and enters these commands:
Which are two results of implementing this feature instead of traditional Netflow? (Choose two.)
A. CPU and memory utilization are reduced.
B. Only the flows of top 100 talkers are exported
C. The data export flow is more secure.
D. The number of packets to be analyzed are reduced
E. The accuracy of the data to be analyzed is improved
Correct Answer: AD
New Question 12:
Which benefit is offered by a cloud infrastructure deployment but is lacking in an on-premises deployment?
A. efficient scalability
B. virtualization
C. storage capacity
D. supported systems
Correct Answer: A
New Question 13:
What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.)
A. core switch
B. vBond controller
C. edge node
D. access switch
E. border node
Correct Answer: CE
There are five basic device roles in the fabric overlay:
+
Control plane node: This node contains the settings, protocols, and mapping tables to provide the endpoint-to-location (EID-to-RLOC) mapping system for the fabric overlay. + Fabric border node: This fabric device (for example, core layer device) connects external Layer 3 networks to the SDA fabric.
+
Fabric edge node: This fabric device (for example, access or distribution layer device) connects wired endpoints to the SDA fabric.
+
Fabric WLAN controller (WLC): This fabric device connects APs and wireless endpoints to the SDA fabric.
+
Intermediate nodes: These are intermediate routers or extended switches that do not provide any sort of SD-Access fabric role other than underlay services.
New Question 14:
What is a fact about Cisco EAP-FAST?
A. It does not require a RADIUS server certificate.
Refer to the exhibit. What is displayed when the code is run?
A. The answer is 25
B. The answer is 70
C. The answer is 5
D. The answer is 100
Correct Answer: A
The “magic” function receives a number, which is 5 from the main() in this question. This function returns a result of 5 + 2*10 = 25 and the str() function converts it into a string (“25”) before printing to the terminal.
…
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A network administrator is configuring OMP in vManage to advertise all the paths for the same prefix from a site that has two WAN Edge devices Each WAN Edge device is connected to three ISPs and two private MPLS transports. What is the minimum value for \’ Number of Paths advertised per Prefix” that should be configured?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 10
Correct Answer: D
New Question 2:
A network administrator is configuring QoS on a Vedge 5000 router and needs to enable it on the transport side interface. Which policy setting must be selected to accomplish this goal?
A. Cloud QoS Service side
B. Cloud QoS
C. Netflow
D. Application
Correct Answer: B
New Question 3:
What is a requirement for a WAN Edge to reach vManage, vBond, and vSmart controllers in a data center?
An engineer is tasked to improve throughput for connection-oriented traffic by decreasing round-trip latency Which configuration will achieve this goal?
A network administrator is setting the queueing value for voice traffic for one of the WAN Edge routers using vManager GUI. Which queue value be set to accomplish this task?
Drag and drop the components from the left onto the corresponding Cisco NFV infrastructure Building Blocks on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
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Tips: Answers will be announced at the end of the article
QUESTION 1:
An engineer is tasked with designing a dual BGP peering solution with a service provider. The design must meet these conditions:
1. The routers will not learn any prefix with a subnet mask greater than /24.
2. The routers will determine the routes to include in the routing table based on the length of the mask alone.
3. The routers will make this selection regardless of the service provider configuration.
Which solution should the engineer include in the design?
A. Use a route map and access list to block the desired networks, and apply the route map to BGP neighbors inbound.
B. Use a route map and prefix list to block the desired networks, and apply the route map to BGP neighbors outbound.
C. Use an IP prefix list to block the desired networks and apply the IP prefix list to BGP neighbors outbound.
D. Use an IP prefix list to block the desired networks and apply the IP prefix list to BGP neighbors inbound.
QUESTION 2:
A company is using OSPF between its HQ location and a branch office. HQ is assigned area 0 and the branch office is assigned area 1. The company purchases a second branch office, but due to circuit delays to HQ, it decides to connect the new branch office to the creating branch office as a temporary measure. The new branch office is assigned area 2.
Which OSPF configuration enables all three locations to exchange routes?
A. The existing branch office must be configured as a stub area B. A virtual link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ C. A sham link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ D. The new branch office must be configured as a stub area
QUESTION 3:
How is end-to-end microsegmentation enforced in a Cisco SD-Access architecture?
A. VLANs are used to segment traffic at Layer 2. B. 5-tuples and ACLs are used to permit or deny traffic. C. SGTs and SGTACLs are used to control access to various resources. D. VRFs are used to segment traffic at Layer 3.
QUESTION 4:
Which two routing protocols allow for unequal cost load balancing? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP B. IS-IS C. BGP D. OSPF E. RIPng
QUESTION 5:
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the telemetry mode they apply to on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6:
How is redundancy achieved among Cisco vBond Orchestrators in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?
A. The IP addresses of all Orchestrators are mapped to a single DNS name. B. The closest Orchestrator to each Cisco WAN Edge router is selected. C. Cisco WAN Edge routers are configured with all Orchestrators using their IP addresses and priority. D. A single Cisco Orchestrator is deployed in each network.
QUESTION 7:
Refer to the exhibit. AS65533 and AS65530 are announcing a partial Internet routing table as well as their IP subnets.
An architect must create a design that ensures AS64512 does not become a transit AS. Which filtering solution must the architect choose?
A. no-advertise B. next-hop C. no-export D. maximum-prefix
QUESTION 8:
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must design an automatic failover solution. The solution should allow HSRP to detect a WAN 1 failure and initiate an automatic failover, making router R2 the active HSRP router. Which two solutions should the engineer choose? (Choose two.)
A. Implement Enhanced Object Tracking on roster R1 B. use a floating static route C. Implement IP SLA on router R1 D. Implement PBR on router R1 E. use IP source routing
QUESTION 9:
Which two functions does the control plane node provide in a Cisco SD-Access architecture? (Choose two.)
A. LISP proxy ETR B. host tracking database C. policy mapping D. map server E. endpoint registration
QUESTION 10:
How is sub-second failure of a transport link detected in a Cisco SD-WAN network?
A. Hellos are sent between the WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller. B. BFD runs on the IPsec tunnels between WAN Edge routers. C. BGP is used between WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller. D. Link state change messages are sent between vSmart controllers.
QUESTION 11:
Refer to the exhibit. The distribution switches serve as the layer 3 boundary. HSRP preemption is enabled. When the primary switch comes back after a failure, traffic is initially dropped. Which solution must be implemented to improve the design?
A. split-horizon B. summarization C. down bit D. route tags
QUESTION 12:
Refer to the exhibit. An architect must design an IP addressing scheme for a multisite network connected via a WAN transit. The campus site must accommodate 12,000 devices and the branch sites must accommodate 1,000 devices.
Which address scheme optimizes network device resources, contains convergence events to the different blocks of the network, and ensures future growth of the network?
A. Campus: 10.0.0.0/18 Branch1: 10.0.192.0/21 Branch2: 10.0.200.0/21 B. Campus: 10.0.0.0/16 Branchi: 10.255.0.0/20 Branch2: 10.255.16.0/20 C. Campus: 10.0.0.0/10 Branch1: 10.64.0.0/10 Branch2: 10.128.0.0/10 D. Campus: 10.0.0.0/20 Branch1: 10.0.64.0/21 Branch2: 10.0.128.0/21
QUESTION 13:
A customer with an IPv4 only network topology wants to enable IPv6 connectivity while preserving the IPv4 topology services. The customer plans to migrate IPv4 services to the IPv6 topology, then decommission the IPv4 topology.
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Updated 2022.7
QUESTION 1:
A Cisco 8540 WLC manages Cisco Aironet 4800 Series APs and sends AoA data to a Cisco CMX 3375 Appliance for Hyperlocation. The load from the WLC is distributed to another virtual CMX server using CMX grouping. The virtual CMX server shows location RSSI data and not Hyperiocation. No AOA metrics are shown on the metrics page of the CMX virtual appliance under System > Metrics > Location Metrics.
How must the network administrator RESOLVE THIS ISSUE?
A. Allow port 2003 for AoA packets to flow through between the CMX appliances. B. Enable Wireless > Access Points > Global configuration > Enable Hyperlocation on the WLC. C. Use one Hyperlocation-enabled WL.C and CMX for AoA data D. Enable the HALO module on the CMX appliance for the data collection
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2:
Where is Cisco Hyperlocation enabled on a Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller web interface?
A. Policy Profile B. AP Join Profile C. Flex Profile D. RF Profile
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3:
An engineer wants to upgrade the APs in a Cisco FlexConnect group. To accomplish this upgrade, the FlexConnect AP Upgrade setting will be used One AP of each model with the lowest MAC address in the group must receive the upgrade directly from the controller.
Which action accomplishes this direct upgrade?
A. Reboot all APs before the upgrade. B. Remove the APs from the group C. Do not set any master APs. 9 0 D. Allocate the master APs to different groups
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4:
The Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold is currently set to -50 dBm. After reviewing the wireless user location, discrepancies have been noticed. To improve the Cisco Hyperlocation accuracy, an engineer attempts to change the detection threshold to -100 dBm However, the Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller does not allow this change to be applied.
What actions should be taken to resolve this issue?
A. Place the APs to monitor the mode shutdown of the radios, and then change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold
B. Shut down all radios on the controller, change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection range, and enable the radios again.
C. Disable Cisco Hyperlocation. change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold and then enable it
D. Create a new profile on Cisco CMX with the new Cisco Hyperlocation detection range, and apply it to the WL AN.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5:
A network engineer has been hired to perform a new MSE implementation on an existing network. The MSE must be installed in a different network than the Cisco WLC.
Which configuration allows the devices to communicate over NMSP?
A. Allow UDP/16113portonthe central switch. B. Allow TCP/16666 port on the router. C. Allow TCP/16113 port on the firewall. D. Allow UDP/16666 port on the VPN router.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6:
Which devices can be tracked with the Cisco Context-Aware Services?
A. wired and wireless devices B. wireless devices C. wired devices D. Cisco certified wireless devices
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7:
A network engineer needs to configure multicast in the network. The implementation will use multiple multicast groups and PIM routers.
Which address provides automatic discovery of the best RP for each multicast group?
A. 224.0.0.13 B. 224.0.0.14 C. 224.0.1.39 D. 224.0.1.40
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8:
A Cisco CMX 3375 appliance on the 10.6.1 version code counts duplicate client entries, which creates wrong location analytics. The issue is primarily from iOS clients with the private MAC address feature enabled. Enabling this feature requires an upgrade of the Cisco CMX 3375 appliance in a high availability pair to version 10.6.3. SCP transfers the Cisco CMX image, but the upgrade script run fails.
Which configuration change resolves this issue?
A. Upgrade the high availability pair to version 10.6.2 image first and then upgrade to version 10.6.3.
B. Save configuration and use the upgrade script to upgrade the high availability pair without breaking the high availability.
C. Break the high availability using the cmxha config disable command and upgrade the primary and secondary individuality.
D. Run root patch to first upgrade to version 10.6.2 and then migrate to version 10.6.3.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9:
An engineer has implemented 802.1x authentication on the wireless network utilizing the internal database of a RADIUS server. Some clients reported that they are unable to connect. After troubleshooting, it is found that PEAP authentication is failing. A debug showed the server is sending an Access-Reject message.
Which action must be taken to resolve authentication?
A. Use the user password that is configured on the server. B. Disable the server certificate to be validated on the client. C. Update the client certificate to match the user account. D. Replace the client certificates from the CA with the server certificate.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10:
An engineer configured a Cisco AireOS controller with two TACACS+ servers. The engineer notices that when the primary TACACS+ server fails, the WLC starts using the secondary server as expected, but the WLC does not use the primary server again until the secondary server fails or the controller is rebooted.
Which cause of this issue is true?
A. Fallback is enabled B. Fallback is disabled C. DNS query is disabled D. DNS query is enabled
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11:
When configuring a Cisco WLC, which CLI command adds a VLAN with a VLAN ID of 30 to a FlexConnect group named BranchA-FCG?
A. config flexconnect BranchA-FCG vlan 30 add B. config flexconnect group BranchA-FCG vlan add 30 C. config flexconnect group BranchA-FCG vlan 30 add D. config flexconnect BranchA-FCG vlan add 30
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12:
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator deploys the DHCP profiler service in two ISE servers: 10.3.10.101 and 10.3.10.102. All BYOD devices connecting to WLAN on VLAN63 have been incorrectly profiled and are assigned as unknown profiled endpoints.
Which action efficiently rectifies the issue according to Cisco recommendations?
A. Nothing needed to be added to the Cisco WLC or VLAN interface. The ISE configuration must be fixed.
B. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC.
C. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC and run the IP helper-address command under the VLAN interface to point to DHCP and the two ISE servers.
D. Keep DHCP proxy enabled on the Cisco WLC and define a helper-address under the VLAN interface to point to the two ISE servers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13:
The marketing department creates a promotion video for the branch store. Only interested hosts must receive the video over wireless multicast.
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Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a configuration that prevents R3from receiving the LSA about 172.16.1.4/32. Which configuration set achieves this goal? [Missing the exhibit]
A. On R3 ip access-list standard R4_L0 deny host 172.16.1.4 permit any router ospf 200 distribute-list R4_L0 in
B. On R3 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA 1 in
C. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA 1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix IN TO-AREA1 in
D. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA1 out
QUESTION 2:
Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?
A. sniffer B. monitor C. bridge D. local
QUESTION 3:
Refer to the exhibit.
The EtherChannel between SW2 and SW3 is not operational which action resolves this issue?
A. Configure the channel-group mode on SW2 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to on. B. Configure the channel-group mode on SW3 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to active. C. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/0 to the trunk. D. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/1 to access.
QUESTION 4:
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0. Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?
A. EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF B. EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors C. EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost. D. EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF
……
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2022 350-401 [Q1]:
Which statements are used for error handling in Python?
A. try/catch B. try/except C. block/rescue D. catch/release
Correct Answer: B
The words “try” and “except” are Python keywords and are used to catch exceptions. For example: try: print 1/0 except ZeroDivisionError: print \’ Error! We cannot divide by zero!!!\’
2022 350-401 [Q2]:
What is the function of a fabric border node in a Cisco SD-Access environment?
A. To collect traffic flow information toward external networks B. To connect the Cisco SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks C. To attach and register clients to the fabric D. To handle an ordered list of IP addresses and locations for endpoints in the fabric.
Correct Answer: B
2022 350-401 [Q3]:
What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in the data center environment? (Choose two.)
A. Increased security B. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements C. reduced IP and MAC address requirements
D. speedy deployment E. smaller Layer 2 domain
Correct Answer: BD
Server virtualization and the use of virtual machines are profoundly changing data center dynamics. Most organizations are struggling with the cost and complexity of hosting multiple physical servers in their data centers. The expansion of the data center, a result of both scale-out server architectures and traditional “one application, one server” sprawl, has created problems in housing, powering, and cooling large numbers of underutilized servers. In addition, IT organizations continue to deal with the traditional cost and operational challenges of matching server resources to organizational needs that seem fickle and ever-changing. Virtual machines can significantly mitigate many of these challenges by enabling multiple application and operating system environments to be hosted on a single physical server while maintaining complete isolation between the guest operating systems and their respective applications. Hence, server virtualization facilitates server consolidation by enabling organizations to exchange a number of underutilized servers for a single highly utilized server running multiple virtual machines. By consolidating multiple physical servers, organizations can gain several benefits: + Underutilized servers can be retired or redeployed. + Rack space can be reclaimed. + Power and cooling loads can be reduced. + New virtual servers can be rapidly deployed. + CapEx (higher utilization means fewer servers need to be purchased) and OpEx (few servers means a simpler environment and lower maintenance costs) can be reduced.
Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?
A. ICMP echo B. UDP jitter C. CMP jitter D. TCP connect
Correct Answer: B
Cisco IOS IP SLA Responder is a Cisco IOS Software component whose functionality is to respond to Cisco IOS IP SLA request packets. The IP SLA source sends control packets before the operation starts to establish a connection to the responder. Once the control packet is acknowledged, test packets are sent to the responder. The responder inserts a time-stamp when it receives a packet and factors out the destination processing time and adds timestamps to the sent packets. This feature allows the calculation of unidirectional packet loss, latency, and jitter measurements with the kind of accuracy that is not possible with ping or another dedicated probe testing. The IP SLAs responder is a component embedded in the destination Cisco device that allows the system to anticipate and respond to IP SLAs request packets. The responder provides accurate measurements without the need for dedicated probes. UDP Jitter measures the delay, delay variation(jitter), corruption, and misordering packet loss by generating periodic UDP traffic. This operation always requires an IP SLA responder.
Which statement about a fabric access point is true?
A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node. B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node. C. It is in local mode and must connect directly to the fabric edge switch. D. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.
Correct Answer: C
Fabric mode APs continue to support the same wireless media services that traditional APs support; apply AVC, quality of service (QoS), and other wireless policies; and establish the CAPWAP control plane to the fabric WLC. Fabric APs join as local-mode APs and must be directly connected to the fabric edge node switch to enable fabric registration events, including RLOC assignment via the fabric WLC. The fabric edge nodes use CDP to recognize APs as special wired hosts, applying special port configurations and assigning the APs to a unique overlay network within a common EID space across a fabric. The assignment allows management simplification by using a single subnet to cover the AP infrastructure at a fabric site.
A. next-generation intrusion detection systems B. Layer 3 transit network devices C. content switches D. web application firewalls
Correct Answer: A
2022 350-401 [Q7]:
Which solution do laaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network?
A. VLAN B. VTEP C. VXLAN D. VRF
Correct Answer: C
2022 350-401 [Q8]:
What is the function of the fabric control plane node In a Cisco SD-Access deployment?
A. It is responsible for policy application and network segmentation in the fabric. B. It performs traffic encapsulation and security profiles enforcement in the fabric. C. It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric. D. It provides Integration with legacy nonfabric-enabled environments.
Correct Answer: C
Fabric control plane node (C): One or more network elements that implement the LISP Map-Server (MS) and Map-Resolver (MR) functionality. The control plane node`s host tracking database keeps track of all endpoints in a fabric site and associates the endpoints to fabric nodes in what is known as an EID-to- RLOC binding in LISP.
Which protocol is used to encrypt control plane traffic between SD-WAN controllers and SDWAN endpoints?
A. DTLS B. IPsec C. PGP D. HTTPS
Correct Answer: A
2022 350-401 [Q10]:
Which two statements about IP SLA are true? (Choose two)
A. It uses NetFlow for passive traffic monitoring B. It can measure MOS C. The IP SLA responder is a component in the source Cisco device D. It is Layer 2 transport-independent correct E. It uses active traffic monitoring correct F. SNMP access is not supported
Correct Answer: DE
IP SLAs allows Cisco customers to analyze IP service levels for IP applications and services, increase productivity, lower operational costs, and reduce the frequency of network outages. IP SLAs use active traffic monitoring the generation of traffic in a continuous, reliable, and predictable manner or measuring network performance. Being Layer-2 transport-independent, IP SLAs can be configured end-to-end over disparate networks to best reflect the metrics that an end-user is likely to experience. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipsla/configuration/15-mt/sla-15- mt-book/ sla_overview.html
2022 350-401 [Q11]:
DRAG-DROP Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure deployment models on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
2022 350-401 [Q12]:
What is used to measure the total output energy of a Wi-Fi device?
A. dBi B. EARP C. mW
D. dBm
Correct Answer: C
Output power is measured in mW (milliwatts). answer \’dBi\’ milliwatt is equal to one thousandth (10-3) of a watt.
2022 350-401 [Q13]:
How does the RIB differ from the FIB?
A. The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.
B. The FIB includes many routes and a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination.
C. The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route
D. The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.
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[Updated 2022.6] 300-415 Dumps exam questions
QUESTION 1:
An administrator must configure an ACL for traffic coming in from the service-side VPN on a specific WAN device with circuit ID 391897770. Which policy must be used to configure this ACL?
A. local data policy B. central data policy C. app-aware policy D. central control policy
A bank is looking for improved customer experience for applications and reduced overhead related to compliance and security. Which key feature or features of the Cisco SD-WAN solution will help the bank to achieve its goals?
A. integration with PaaS providers to offer the best possible application experience
B. QoS includes application prioritization and meeting critical applications SLA for selecting the optimal path.
C. implementation of a modem age core banking system
D. implementation of BGP across the enterprise routing for selecting the optimal path
Which VPN connects the transport-side WAN Edge interface to the underlay/WAN network?
A. VPN 1 B. VPN 511 C. VPN 0 D. VPN 512
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5:
What is a default protocol for a control plane connection?
A. HTTPS B. TLS C. IPsec D. DTLS
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1:
Which component of the Cisco SD-WAN secure extensible network provides a single pane of glass approach to network monitoring and configuration? A. APIC-EM B. vSmart C. vManage D. vBond
QUESTION 2:
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is getting a CTORGNMMIS error on a controller connection. Which action resolves this issue?
A. Configure a valid certificate on vSMART. B. Configure a valid organization name. C. Configure a valid serial number on the WAN Edge. D. Configure a valid product ID.
Which attributes are configured to uniquely identify and represent a TLOC route?
A. system IP address, link color, and encapsulation B. origin, originator, and preference C. site ID, tag, and VPN D. firewall, IPS, and application optimization
TLOC routes are the logical tunnel termination points on the vEdge routers that connect into a transport network. A TLOC route is uniquely identified and represented by a three-tuple, consisting of system IP address, link color, and encapsulation (Generic Routing Encapsulation [GRE] or IPSec). In addition to system IP address, color, and encapsulation, TLOC routes also carry attributes such as TLOC private and public IP addresses, carrier, preference, site ID, tag, and weight. For a TLOC to be considered in an active state on a particular vEdge, an active BFD session must be associated with that vEdge TLOC. https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/CVD-SD-WANDesign-2018OCT.pdf
QUESTION 4:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command allows traffic through the IPsec tunnel configured in VPN 0?
A. service netsvc1 vpn1 B. service netsvc1 address 1.1.1.1 C. service FW address 1.1.1.1 D. service local
Which configuration configures IPsec tunnels in active and standby?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D
QUESTION 6:
The network administrator is configuring a QoS scheduling policy on traffic received from transport side tunnels on WAN Edge 5000 routers at location 406141498 Which command must be configured on these devices?
A. cloud-qos B. service qos C. cloud-mis qos D. mis qos
QUESTION 7:
Which feature builds transport redundancy by using the cross link between two redundant WAN Edge routers?
A. OMP B. zero-touch provisioning C. quality of service D. TLOC extension
QUESTION 8:
Which two products that perform lifecycle management for virtual instances are supported by WAN Edge cloud routers? (Choose two.)
A. OpenStack B. AWS C. VMware vCenter D. Azure E. IBM Cloud
The Cisco SD-WAN network is configured with a default full-mesh topology. Islamabad HQ and Islamabad WAN Edges must be used as the hub sites. Hub sites MPLS TLOC must be preferred when forwarding FTP traffic based on a configured SLA class list. Which policy configuration does the network engineer use to call the SLA class and set the preferred color to MPLS?
A. Centralized Policy, Traffic Policy B. Centralized Policy, Topology C. Localized Policy, Forwarding Class D. Localized Policy, Route Policy
What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode of power allocation when an access point is connected o a PoE switch port?
A. It detects the device is a powered device B. All four pairs of the cable are used C. Power policing is enabled at the same time D. The default level is used for the access point
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Vendor:Cisco Exam Code: 300-410 Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI) Certification:CCNP Enterprise Duration: 90 minutes Languages: English and Japanese Price: $300 USD
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QUESTION 1:
An engineer needs dynamic routing between two routers and is unable to establish OSPF adjacency. The output of the show ip ospf neighbor command shows that the neighbor state is EXSTART/EXCHANGE. Which action should be taken to resolve this issue?
A. match the passwords B. match the hello timers C. match the MTUs D. match the network types
Correct Answer: C
The problem occurs most frequently when attempting to run OSPF between a Cisco router and another vendor\’s router. The problem occurs when the maximum transmission unit (MTU) settings for neighboring router interfaces don\’t match. If the router with the higher MTU sends a packet larger than the MTU set on the neighboring router, the neighboring router ignores the packet.
QUESTION 2:
Refer to the exhibit. Users report that IP addresses cannot be acquired from the DHCP server. The DHCP server is configured as shown. About 300 total nonconcurrent users are using this DHCP server, but none of them are active for more than two hours per day. Which action fixes the issue within the current resources?
A. Modify the subnet mask to the network 192.168.1.0 255.255.254.0 command in the DHCP pool B. Configure the DHCP lease time to a smaller value C. Configure the DHCP lease time to a bigger value D. Add the network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 command to the DHCP pool
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3:
You recently implemented SNMPv3 to increase the security of your network management system. A partial output of the show run command displays the following output that relates to SNMP.
snmp-server group NORMAL v3 noauth read NORMAL write NORMAL Which of the following statements is true of this configuration?
A. it provides encryption, but it does not provide authentication B. it provides neither authentication nor encryption C. it provides authentication, but it does not provide encryption D. it provides both authentication and encryption
Correct Answer: B
It provides neither authentication nor encryption. In SNMPv3 there are three combinations of security that can be used:
noAuthNoPriv- no authentication and no encryption noauth keyword in the configuration AuthNoPriv – messages are authenticated but not encrypted auth keyword in the configuration AuthPriv – messages are authenticated and encrypted priv keyword in the configuration In this case, the keyword noauth in the configuration indicates that no authentication and no encryption are provided. This makes the implementation no more secure than SNMPv1 or SNMPv2.
In SNMPv1 and SNMPv2, authentication is performed using a community string. When you implement SNMP using the noauth keyword, it does not use community strings for authentication. Instead it uses the configured user or group name (in this case NORMAL). Regardless, it does not provide either authentication or encryption.
A network administrator is discovering a Cisco Catalyst 9300 and a Cisco WLC 3504 in Cisco DNA Center. The Catalyst 9300 is added successfully. However, the WLC is showing the error “uncontactable” when the administrator tries to add it to Cisco DNA Center. Which action discovers WLC in Cisco DNA Center successfully?
A. Delete the WLC 3504 from Cisco DNA Center and add it to Cisco DNA Center again. B. Add the WLC 3504 under the hierarchy of the Catalyst 9300 connected devices. C. Copy the .cert file from the Cisco DNA Center on the USB and upload it to the WLC 3504. D. Copy the .pem file from the Cisco DNA Center on the USB and upload it to the WLC 3504.
Refer to the exhibit.R4 is experiencing a packet drop when trying to reach 172.16.2.7 behind R2. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Insert a /24 floating static route on R2 toward R3 with metric 254. B. Disable auto summarization on R2. C. Insert a /16 floating static route on R2 toward R3 with metric 254. D. Enable auto summarization on all three routers R1, R2, and R3.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6:
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP SLA is configured to use the backup default route when the primary is down, but it is not working as desired. Which command fixes the issue?
A. R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.2.2.2.2 10 track 1 B. R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.2.2.2.2 C. R1(config)#ip sla track 1 D. R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.1.1.1.1 track 1
Correct Answer: D
Note: By default Static Router AD value-1 hence IP route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0. 1.1.1.1 track 1 means AD-1 which must be less than of backup route AD. Define the backup route to use when the tracked object is unavailable. !— The administrative distance of the backup route must be greater than !— the administrative distance of the tracked route. !— If the primary gateway is unreachable, that route is removed !— and the backup route is installed in the routing table !— instead of the tracked route. Reference:
A network engineer needs to verify IP SLA operations on an interface that shows an indication of excessive traffic. Which command should the engineer use to complete this action?
A. show frequency B. show track C. show reachability D. show threshold
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8:
Which attribute eliminates LFAs that belong to protected paths in situations where links in a network are connected through a common fiber?
A. Shared Risk Link Group (SRLG)-disjoint B. linecard-disjoint C. lowest-repair-path-metric D. interface-disjoint
Correct Answer: A
LFA Tie-Breaking Rules When there are multiple candidate LFAs for a given primary path, EIGRP uses a tie-breaking rule to select one LFA per primary path per prefix. A tie-breaking rule considers LFAs that satisfy certain conditions or have certain attributes. EIGRP uses the following four attributes to implement tie-breaking rules: – Interface-disjoint—Eliminates LFAs that share the outgoing interface with the protected path. – Linecard-disjoint—Eliminates LFAs that share the line card with the protected path. – Lowest-repair-path-metric—Eliminates LFAs whose metric to the protected prefix is high. Multiple LFAs with the same lowest path metric may remain in the routing table after this tie-breaker is applied. – Shared Risk Link Group (SRLG)-disjoint—Eliminates LFAs that belong to any of the protected path SRLGs. SRLGs refer to situations where links in a network share a common fiber (or a common physical attribute). If one link fails, other links in the group may also fail. Therefore, links in a group share risks.
Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP client is unable to receive an IP address from the DHCP server. RouterB is configured as follows:
Which command is required on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of RouterB to resolve this issue?
A. RouterB(config-if)#lp helper-address 172.31.1.1 B. RouterBiconfig-ififclp helper-address 255.255 255 255 C. RouterB(config-if)#lp helper-address 172.16.1.1 D. RouterB(config-if)#lp helper-address 172.16.1.2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10:
DRAG DROP Drag and Drop the IPv6 First-Hop Security features from the left onto the definitions on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
+ Block reply and advertisement messages from unauthorized DHCP servers and relay agents: IPv6 DHCPv6 Guard + Create a binding table that is based on NS and NA messages: IPv6 ND Inspection + Filter inbound traffic on Layer 2 switch port that are not in the IPv6 binding table: IPv6 Source Guard + Block a malicious host and permit the router from a legitimate route: IPv6 RA Guard + Create IPv6 neighbors connected to the device from information sources such as NDP snooping: IPv6 Binding Table
QUESTION 11:
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is using the DNA Assurance Dashboard panel to troubleshoot an OSPF adjacency that failed between Edge_NYC Interface GigabitEthernet1/3 with Neighbor Edge_SNJ. The administrator observes that the neighborship is stuck in an extracted state. How does the administrator fix this issue?
A. Configure to match the OSPF interface network types on both routers. B. Configure to match the OSPF interface speed and duplex settings on both routers. C. Configure to match the OSPF interface MTU settings on both routers. D. Configure to match the OSPF interface unique IP address and subnet mask on both routers.
After two OSPF neighboring routers establish bi-directional communication and complete DR/BDR election (on multi-access networks), the routers transition to the exstart state. In this state, the neighboring routers establish a master/slave relationship and determine the initial database descriptor (DBD) sequence number to use while exchanging DBD packets. Neighbors Stuck in Exstart/Exchange State The problem occurs most frequently when attempting to run OSPF between a Cisco router and another vendor\’s router. The problem occurs when the maximum transmission unit (MTU) settings for neighboring router interfaces don\’t match. If the router with the higher MTU sends a packet larger than the MTU set on the neighboring router, the neighboring router ignores the packet.
QUESTION 12:
What are the two functions of LDP? (Choose two.)
A. It advertises labels per Forwarding Equivalence Class. B. It uses Forwarding Equivalence Class. C. It is defined in RFC 3038 and 3039. D. It requires MPLS Traffic Engineering. E. It must use Resource Reservation Protocol.
How is VPN routing information distributed in an MPLS network?
A. It is controlled through the use of RD. B. The top level of the customer data packet directs it to the correct CE device. C. It is established using VPN IPsec peers. D. It is controlled using VPN target communities.
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The questions for 300-820 were last updated on April 22, 2022.
Viewing questions 1-13 out of 96 questions:
QUESTION 1:
Where are voice calls handled in a Cisco Jabber hybrid cloud-based deployment with Cisco Webex Platform Service?
A. Voice calls use the Webex Calling platform for call control and uses hybrid media nodes for local conferencing. B. Voice calls use local media nodes to keep traffic internal for internal traffic and use Webex Calling for external calls. C. Voice call use Cisco Unified Communications Manager for local calls and Webex Calling for external calls. D. Voice calls use local Cisco Unified Communications Manager for all calls.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2:
Refer to the exhibit.
Mobile Cisco Jabber cannot register with on-premises Cisco Unified Communications Manager using Mobile and Remote Access. Some logs were captured on Expressway Edge. Which action corrects this problem?
A. Ensure that the peer address does not match the Common Name on the certificate. B. Ensure that the _cisco-uds SRV record has been configured. C. Ensure that the credential has been entered correctly. D. Ensure that the SIP domains are added to Expressway Core.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3:
Refer to the exhibit.
Calls to locally registered endpoints are failing. At present, there are two endpoints registered locally to this Expressway. An H.323 endpoint with an alias of “EndpointA” is registered, and a SIP endpoint with an alias of “[email protected]” is also registered. How is this issue resolved?
A. The dialplan must be redesigned to use the transforms to convert the alias into SIP URI format and then use separate search rules for each format that needs to be dialed within the local zone. B. The calls are failing because there are insufficient licenses. Additional licenses must be installed for the Expressway to route these calls. C. The current search rule does not match the call, so the search rule must be modified to include a SIP Variant of “Standards-Based”. D. Calling parties are placing calls with the wrong domain. End-users must be instructed not to use the pod1. local domain as that is owned by the local system. Calls to any other domain would work.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4:
Which two statements about Expressway media traversal are true? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway Control is the traversal server installed in the DMZ. B. The Expressway Edge must be put in a firewall DMZ segment. C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone can be either traversal server or client. D. The Unified Communications traversal zone can be used for Mobile and Remote Access. E. Both Expressway Edge interfaces can be NATed.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5:
Which two licenses are required for the Expressway B2B feature to work? (Choose two)
A. Traversal Server B. Advanced Networking C. Device Provisioning D. Rich Media Sessions E. TURN Relays
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the result of a transformation applied to alias 88514?
The answer should be [email protected] since the regex considers anything after digit 8 (excludes 1-7), leaves the rest intact, and replaces the domain. So in the short term, it simply adds the domain after the DN.
QUESTION 7:
In a Mobile and Remote Access deployment, where must communications be encrypted with TLS?
A. Cisco Expressway-E and endpoints outside the enterprise B. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and IMandP C. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Expressway-E, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager D. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Expressway-E, and endpoints outside the enterprise
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8:
Refer to the exhibit showing logs from the Expressway-C, a copy of the Expressway-E certificate, and the UC traversal zone configuration for the Expressway-C. An office administrator is deploying mobile and remote access and sees an issue with the UC traversal zone. The zone is showing “TLS negotiation failure”.
What is causing this issue?
A. The Expressway-E certificate includes the Expressway-C FQDN as a SAN entry B. The Expressway-C is missing the FQDN of Cisco UCM in the Common Name of its certificate C. In the UC Traversal Zone on the Expressway-C, the peer address is set to the IP of the Expressway-E, which is not a SAN entry in the Expressway-E certificate D. The Expressway-E does not have the FQDN of Cisco UCM listed as a SAN in its certificate
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9:
Which step is taken when configuring a Cisco Expressway solution?
A. Configure the Expressway-E by using a non-traversal server zone. B. Enable static NAT on the Expressway-E only. C. Disable H.323 mode on the Expressway-E. D. Enable H.323 H.460.19 demultiplexing mode on the Expressway-C.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10:
What is the purpose of using ICE for Mobile and Remote Access endpoints in the Cisco Collaboration infrastructure?
A. ICE controls the bandwidth usage for Cisco Collaboration endpoints if the endpoints are located outside the company network. B. ICE enables Cisco Collaboration endpoints to determine if there is direct connectivity between them. C. ICE uses FAST updates to optimize the video quality in case of packet loss. This technology is available only from Cisco Unified CM version 11.5 and later. D. ICE enablement allows for the Cisco Collaboration endpoint to register through Expressway servers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager behind a firewall.
An Expressway-E is configured using a single NIC with NAT. How must the Expressway-C traversal client zone be configured to connect to the Expressway-E?
A. TLS verification must be enabled. B. The zone profile must be set to default. C. The peer address must be the Expressway-E NAT address. D. The peer address must be the Expressway-E LAN 1 IP address.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12:
Which two types of information does Cisco Expressway back up? (Choose two.)
A. call records B. log files C. IP addresses D. current call states E. security certificates
Correct Answer: AE
The data saved to a backup file includes: Bootstrap key (from X8.11) System configuration settings Clustering configuration Local authentication data (but not Active Directory credentials for remotely managed accounts) User account and password details Server security certificate and private key Call detail records (if the CDR service on Expressway is enabled) Reference:
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