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When wireless SSIDs are configured in Dashboard, which setting on the Access Control page affects the ability of a 2.4 GHz-only client device from associating to the WLAN for the first time?
A. Content filtering
B. Bridge mode
C. 802.11r
D. Dual band operating with Band Steering
Correct Answer: D
Question 2:
Refer to the exhibit. This Dashboard organization uses a Co-Termination licensing model.
What happens when an additional seven APs are claimed on this network without adding licenses?
A. All APs immediately stop functioning.
B. All network devices stop functioning in 30 days.
C. One AP Immediately stops functioning.
D. All APs stop functioning in 30 days.
Correct Answer: B
Question 3:
How is high availability supported for Cisco Meraki devices?
A. Only the MX Security Appliances that use VRRP support high availability.
B. An active/active high-availability pair is recommended for MX Security Appliances.
C. The MX Security Appliances and MS Series Switches that use VRRP support an active/passive high-availability pair.
D. The MX Security Appliances and MS Series Switches that use HSRP support an active/passive high-availability pair.
What are the two effects on connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Currently associated clients stay connected.
B. New clients can connect.
C. Currently associated clients are affected by restrictive traffic shaping rules.
D. New clients cannot connect.
E. Currently associated clients are disconnected.
Correct Answer: DE
Question 5:
Refer to the exhibit. For an AP that displays this alert, which network access control method must be in use?
A. preshared key
B. WPA2-enterprise with my RADIUS server
C. splash page with my RADIUS server
D. MAC-based access control with a RADIUS server
Correct Answer: A
Question 6:
One thousand concurrent users stream video to their laptops. A 30/70 split between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz is used. Based on the client count, how many APs (rounded to the nearest whole number) are needed?
A. 26
B. 28
C. 30
D. 32
Correct Answer: C
Question 7:
A customer wants to use Microsoft Azure to host corporate application servers.
Which feature does the customer get by using a vMX appliance rather than connecting directly to Azure by VPN?
A. malware protection
B. SD-WAN
C. next-generation firewall
D. intrusion prevention
Correct Answer: C
Question 8:
Which Cisco Meraki product must be deployed in addition to Systems Manager so that Systems Manager Sentry enrollment can be used?
Drag and drop the settings from the left into the boxes on the right to indicate if the setting will be cloned or not cloned using the Cisco Meraki MS switch cloning feature.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 11:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to manage device control, according to Cisco Meraki best practice.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 12:
A new application needs to be pushed to all iOS devices. Some devices report “NotNow” in the event log and do not install the application. What does the “NotNow” event indicate?
A. The application requires the most recent iOS version.
B. The device is locked with a passcode.
C. The device cannot connect to Apple servers.
D. The device cannot connect to Cisco Meraki servers.
Refer to the exhibit. Which IDS/IPS mode is the MX Security Appliance configured for?
A. quarantine
B. prevention
C. detection
D. blocking
Correct Answer: B
Question 15:
A customer requires a hub-and-spoke Auto VPN deployment with two NAT-mode hubs with dual uplink connections and 50 remote sites with a single uplink connection. How many tunnels do each hub need to support?
A. 52
B. 54
C. 100
D. 104
Correct Answer: C
…
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Exam name
Exam code
Last updated
15
Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (CCNA)
Refer to the exhibit. Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)
R2#show IP routeC 192.168.1.0/26 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1
A. 192.168.1.17
B. 192.168.1.61
C. 192.168.1.64
D. 192.168.1.127
E. 192.168.1.254
Correct Answer: BC
Question 2:
Refer to the exhibit. R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
Question 3:
Refer to the exhibit.
SW2 is replaced due to a hardware failure. A network engineer starts to configure SW2 by copying the Fa0/1 interface configuration from SW1. Which command must be configured on the Fa0/1 interface of SW2 to enable PC1 to connect to PC2?
A. switchport mode trunk
B. switchport trunk native VLAN 10
C. switchport trunk allowed remove 10
D. switchport mode access
Correct Answer: A
Question 4:
Which WAN topology has the highest degree of reliability?
A. full mesh
B. Point-to-point
C. hub-and-spoke
D. router-on-a-stick
Correct Answer: A
Question 5:
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 6:
Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?
A. SAE encryption
B. TKIP encryption
C. scrambled encryption key
D. AES encryption
Correct Answer: A
Question 7:
What is the authoritative source for an address lookup?
A. a recursive DNS search
B. the operating system cache
C. the ISP local cache
D. the browser cache
Correct Answer: A
Question 8:
In software-defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?
A. management plane
B. control plane
C. policy plane
D. data plane
Correct Answer: D
Question 9:
Refer to the exhibit. The link between PC1 and the switch is up, but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
A. There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.
B. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface.
C. There is an interface type mismatch.
D. There is a speed mismatch on the interface.
Correct Answer: B
Question 10:
Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configurations to R1 and R2 you notice that OSPFv3 fails to start.
A. The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched
B. The IPv6 network addresses on R1 and R2 are mismatched
C. The autonomous system numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched
D. The router on R1 and R2 are mismatched
Correct Answer: A
Question 11:
Refer to the exhibit.
The following must be considered:
1.
SW1 is fully configured for all traffic
2.
The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured
3.
The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured
4.
The remaining switches have had all VLANs added to their VLAN database
Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Question 12:
Which action is taken by the switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
A. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shut down and err-disabled.
B. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port, a Syslog message is generated.
C. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked, data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused.
D. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power, it assumes the device has failed and disconnects it.
Correct Answer: A
PoE monitoring and policing compare the power consumption on ports with the administrative maximum value (either a configured maximum value or the port\’s default value). If the power consumption on a monitored port exceeds the administrative maximum value, the following actions occur:
-A Syslog message is issued.
–
The monitored port is shut down and error-disabled.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)
A. R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100
B. R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100
C. R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)# ip address DHCP R1(config-if)# no shutdown
D. R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)# ip address DHCP
E. R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2
Correct Answer: BC
Question 14:
What does physical access control regulate?
A. access to spec file networks based on business function
B. access to servers to prevent malicious activity
C. access 😮 computer networks and file systems
D. access to networking equipment and facilities
Correct Answer: D
Question 15:
What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. TCP
D. FTP
Correct Answer: B
…
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Which design consideration must be made when dual vEdge routers are deployed at a branch site?
A. Use BGP AS-path prepending to influence egress traffic and use MED to influence ingress traffic from the branch.
B. HSRP priorities must match the OMP routing policy to prefer one vEdge over the other.
C. Traffic must be symmetrical as it egresses the vEdges and returns from remote sites for DPI to function properly.
D. Configure BFD between vEdge routers to detect sub-second link failures.
Correct Answer: A
Question 3:
How are wireless endpoints registered in the HTDB in a Cisco SD-Access architecture?
A. Fabric edge nodes update the HTDB based on CAPPWAP messaging from the AP
B. Fabric WLCs update the HTDB as new clients connect to the wireless network
C. Border nodes first register endpoints and then update the HTDB
D. Fabric APs update the HTDB with the clients\’ ElD and RLOC
Correct Answer: B
Question 4:
Refer to the exhibit.
The full EIGRP routing table is advertised throughout the network. Currently, users experience data loss when any one link in the network fails. An architect must optimize the network to reduce the impact when a link fails. Which solution should the architect include in the design?
A. Run BFD on the interlinks between EIGRP neighbors.
B. Summarize the access layer networks from each access layer switch toward the aggregation layer.
C. Reduce the default EIGRP hello interval and hold time.
D. Summarize the access layer networks from the aggregation layer toward the core layer.
Correct Answer: A
Question 5:
Which OSPF area blocks LSA Type 3, 4, and 5, but allows a default summary route?
A. normal
B. stub
C. NSSA
D. totally stubby
Correct Answer: D
Question 6:
An engineer uses Postman and YANG to configure a router with: OSPF process ID 400 network 192.168.128.128/25 enabled for Area 0
Which get-config reply verifies that the model set was designed correctly?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
Question 7:
In an SD-WAN architecture, which methods are used to bootstrap a vEdge router?
A. DHCP options or manual configuration
B. manage or DNS records
C. ZTP or manual configuration
D. DNS records or DHCP options
Correct Answer: C
Question 8:
Which type of rendezvous point deployment is standards-based and supports dynamic RP discovery?
A. Auto-RP
B. Anycast-RP
C. bootstrap router
D. static RP
Correct Answer: C
Question 9:
Refer to the exhibit. An architect must create a stable and scalable EIGRP solution for a customer. The design must:
1.
conserve bandwidth, memory, and CPU processing
2.
prevent suboptimal routing
3.
avoid any unnecessary queries
Which two solutions must the architect select? (Choose two.)
A. route summarization
B. prefix lists
C. distribute lists
D. stub routing
E. static redistribution
Correct Answer: AC
Question 10:
Which two functions are provided by the Cisco SD-WAN orchestration plane? (Choose two.)
A. centralized provisioning
B. primary authentication point
C. NAT traversal facilitation
D. Zero Touch Provisioning
E. troubleshooting and monitoring
Correct Answer: BC
Question 11:
At which layer does Cisco Express Forwarding use adjacency tables to populate addressing information?
A. Layer4
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 1
D. Layer 3
Correct Answer: B
Question 12:
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing a BGP solution for a client that peers with ISP1 for full Internet connectivity and with ISP2 for direct exchange of routes for several third parties. Which action, when implemented on the edge routers, enables the client network to reach the Internet through ISP1?
A. Run an eBGP session within different VRFs for each ISP.
B. Advertise a default route for downstream routers within the client network.
C. Apply the AS-path prepend feature for ISP2.
D. Apply route filtering such that the client advertises only routes originating from its own AS.
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the Yang model they describe on the right.
What is the purpose of a Cisco SD-Access underlay network?
A. to abstract IP-based connectivity from physical connectivity
B. to emulate LAN segments to transport Layer 2 frames over a Layer 3 network
C. to establish physical connectivity between switches and routers
D. to provide virtualization by encapsulating network traffic over IP tunnels
Correct Answer: C
…
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When enabled which two features will help extend the retention capacity of the Meraki MV smart cameras? (Choose two)
A. Direct stream-based retention
B. Schedule-based retention
C. Hybrid archives
D. Cloud archives
E. Motion-based retention
Correct Answer: BE
Question 2:
In which two ways can the Cisco Catalyst 1000 series of switches be managed? (Choose two )
A. Command-Line Interface
B. Mobile App
C. Cisco Prime
D. Cloud Managed E. On-box web Ul
Correct Answer: AE
Question 3:
Which approach describes the high-velocity Cisco Meraki sales cycle?
A. POC, QandA. Rollout
B. Compete Pilot, Support
C. Discover Design Demo
D. See, Try, Buy
Correct Answer: D
Question 4:
Which Cisco-designed portfolio solution is best for a business of 50 users or less?
A. Meraki MX
B. Meraki Go
C. Firepower 10-10
D. Cisco Umbrella
E. Cisco AnyConnect
Correct Answer: B
Question 5:
Which Cisco RV model supports Umbrella integration?
A. RV160W
B. RV340
C. RV260P
D. RV260
Correct Answer: B
Question 6:
What is the built-in technology on the MR platform that utilizes one-way beacon advertising to interact with applications?
A. Adaptive Radio Management
B. BLE (Bluetooth Low Energy)
C. BeamFlex
D. Radio Resource Management
Correct Answer: B
Question 7:
What are two customer benefits of Cisco Catalyst SMB switches? (Choose two )
A. logical upgrade and replacement for the Cisco Catalyst 2960-Plus. at the same price point
B. built for large-scale deployments
C. contains advanced encryption functionality
D. niche business functionality
E. cool, quiet fan-less design ideal for labs open spaces, and the workplace
Correct Answer: CE
Question 8:
Which two Cisco Small Business series switches are smart-managed? (Choose two.)
A. 220
B. 250
C. 550X
D. 350X
E. 110
Correct Answer: AB
Question 9:
Which two security tools allow administrators to maximize the security of their Dashboard management accounts? (Choose two )
A. Role-based administration
B. Local (direct) access-only policies
C. Two-factor authentication
D. Biometric authentication
E. Captcha challenge-response tests
Correct Answer: AC
Question 10:
On which Cisco Small Business switch series is Smart Network Application (SNA) available?
A. the 550X series switch
B. only the 350X series switch not the 350 series
C. the 110 series switch
D. all 200 series switches
Correct Answer: A
Question 11:
What is the behavior of Cisco AMP for Endpoints?
A. the top ten significant compromises are prominently displayed in the console
B. security compromises are graphically shown and color-coded by the device
C. prevents threats at the point of entry D. allows a user to categorize events and endpoints by infection time
Correct Answer: C
Question 12:
What are the two Meraki licensing models for organizations? (Choose two )
A. Cloud Dashboard licensing
B. Per-device licensing
C. Advanced Security licensing
D. Co-termination licensing
E. Enterprise Network licensing
Correct Answer: BD
Question 13:
What is the easiest way to extend WiFi coverage and capacity?
A. Cisco Business Wireless Mesh Extender
B. Wireless Access Point
C. Umbrella DNS
D. Cisco Business Dashboard
Correct Answer: A
Question 14:
Which two firewalls form part of Cisco\’s SMB offering? (Choose two ) A. Cisco Firepower 1000
B. Cisco ISA
C. Cisco ISE
D. Cisco ASAv
E. Cisco Meraki MX
Correct Answer: AE
Question 15:
What are two network-wide features that should be included in a Cisco Meraki full-stack demo? (Choose two )
A. Summary Report
B. CMX Location Analytics
C. L3 Scalability
D. Network Topology
E. Cisco AMP
Correct Answer: AD
…
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An engineer is responsible for a wireless network for an enterprise. The enterprise has distributed offices around the globe, and all APs are configured in FlexConnect mode. The network must be configured to support 802.11r and CCKM. What needs to be implemented to accomplish this goal?
A. Enable VLAN-based central switching.
B. Enable FlexConnect local authentication.
C. Enable FlexConnect local switching.
D. Create FlexConnect groups.
Correct Answer: D
New Question 2:
What is the default IEEE 802.1x AP authentication configuration on a Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller?
A. EAP-PEAP with 802.1x port authentication
B. EAP-TLS with 802.1x port authentication
C. EAP-FAST with CAPWAP DTLS + port authentication
An engineer wants to configure WebEx to adjust the precedence and override the QoS profile on the WLAN. Which configuration is needed to complete this task?
A. Change the WLAN reserved bandwidth for WebEx
B. Create an AVC profile for WebEx
C. Create an ACL for WebEx
D. Change the AVC application WebEx-app-sharing to mark
The IT manager is asking the wireless team to get a report for all guest user associations during the past two weeks. In which two formats can Cisco Prime save this report? (Choose two.)
A. CSV
B. PDF
C. XLS
D. DOC
E. plain text
Correct Answer: AB
New Question 5:
What is an important consideration when implementing a dual SSID design for BYOD?
A. After using the provisioning SSID, an ACL that is used to make the client switch SSIDs forces the user to associate and traverse the network by MAC filtering.
B. If multiple WLCs are used, the WLAN IDs must be exact for the clients to be provisioned and traverse the network correctly.
C. SSIDs for this setup must be configured with NAC State-RADIUS NAC for the clients to authenticate with Cisco ISE, or with NAC State-ISE NAC for Cisco ISE to associate with the client.
D. One SSID is for provisioning and the other SSID is for gaining access to the network. The use of an ACL should not be enforced to make the client connect to the REAL SSID after provisioning.
Correct Answer: D
New Question 6:
For security purposes, an engineer enables CPU ACL and chooses an ACL on the Security > Access Control Lists > CPU Access Control Lists menu. Which kind of traffic does this change apply to, as soon as the change is made?
A. wireless traffic only
B. wired traffic only
C. VPN traffic
D. wireless and wired traffic
Correct Answer: D
New Question 7:
A healthcare organization notices many rogue APs and is concerned about a honeypot attack.
Which configuration must a wireless network engineer perform in Cisco Prime Infrastructure to prevent these attacks most efficiently upon detection?
A. Set the auto containment level to 0 and select the Ad Hoc Rogue AP containment option.
B. Set the auto containment level to 0 and select the Using Our SSID containment option
C. Set the manual containment level to 4 and select the Ad Hoc Rogue AP containment option.
D. Set the auto containment level to 4 and select the Using Our SSID containment option.
Correct Answer: C
New Question 8:
A company has a single WLAN configured for 802.1x authentication with the QoS set to Silver. This WLAN supports all corporate and BYOD access. A decision has been made to allow users to install Cisco Jabber on their personal mobile devices. Users report poor voice quality when using Jabber.
QoS is being applied only as a best effort. What must be configured to ensure that the WLAN remains on the Silver class and to ensure the Platinum class for Jabber?
A. Configure an AVC profile for the Jabber traffic and apply it to the WLAN.
B. Configure the WLAN to broadcast on 5 GHz radios only and allow Jabber users to con.
C. Enable Cisco Centralized Key Management on the WLAN so that the Jabber-enabled devices will connect.
D. Configure QoS on the mobile devices that have Jabber installed.
A wireless engineer needs to implement client tracking. Which method does the angle of arrival use to determine the location of a wireless device?
A. received signal strength
B. triangulation
C. time distance of arrival
D. angle of incidence
Correct Answer: D
New Question 10:
After looking in the logs, an engineer notices that RRM keeps changing the channels for non-IEEE 802. 11 interferers. After surveying the area, it has been decided that RRM should not change the channel. Which feature must be enabled to ignore non-802.11 interference?
A. Avoid Cisco AP Load
B. Avoid Persistent Non-WIFI Interference
C. Avoid Foreign AP Interference
D. Avoid Non-802. 11 Noise
Correct Answer: B
Check the Avoid Non-802.11a (802.11b) Noise check box to cause the controller\’s RRM algorithms to consider noise (non-802.11 traffic) in the channel when assigning channels to lightweight access points, or uncheck it to disable this feature. For example, RRM may have access points to avoid channels with significant interference from nonaccess point sources, such as microwave ovens.
The default value is selected. Check the Avoid Persistent Non-WiFi Interference check box to configure the controller to stop ignoring persistent non-Wi-Fi interference in new channel calculation. The persistent non-Wi-Fi interference is considered during the metric calculation for channels.
A customer has a distributed wireless deployment model where the WLCs are located in the data centers. Because the file servers are located in the data center, the traffic from the corporate WLAN “Corp-401266017” must go through the controllers, where the guest WLAN “Guest-19283746” traffic must use the local Internet line installed in each office. Which configuration will accomplish this task?
A. Disable Local Switching for the corporate and guest WLAN.
B. Disable Local Switching for the corporate WLAN and enable it for the guest WLAN.
C. Enable Local Switching for the corporate and guest WLAN.
D. Enable Local Switching for the corporate WLAN and disable it for the guest WLAN.
Correct Answer: C
New Question 14:
An engineer configured a Cisco AireOS controller with two TACACS+ servers. The engineer notices that when the primary TACACS+ server fails, the WLC starts using the secondary server as expected, but the WLC does not use the primary
server again until the secondary server fails or the controller is rebooted.
Which cause of this issue is true?
A. Fallback is enabled
B. Fallback is disabled
C. DNS query is disabled
D. DNS query is enabled
Correct Answer: B
New Question 15:
Which QoS level is recommended for guest services?
A. gold
B. bronze
C. platinum
D. silver
Correct Answer: B
…
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Number of exam questions
Exam name
From
Release time
Last updated
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Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
Which Python code snippet must be added to the script to save the returned configuration as a JSON-formatted file?
A. with open(“ifaces.json”, “w”) as OutFile: OutFile.write(Response. text)
B. with open(“ifaces.json”, “w”) as OutFile: OutFile.write(Response.json())
C. with open(“ifaces.json”, “w”) as OutFile: JSONResponse = JSON.loads(Response.text) OutFile.write(JSONResponse)
D. with open(“ifaces.json”, “w”) as OutFile: OutFile.write(Response)
Correct Answer: B
The JSON() method of the Response interface takes a Response stream and reads it to completion. It returns a promise which resolves with the result of parsing the body text as JSON.
New Question 2:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration must be implemented to establish EBGP peering between R1 and R2?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
New Question 3:
An engineer must configure HSRP group 300 on a Cisco IOS router. When the router is functional, it must be the active HSRP router
The peer router has been configured using the default priority value.
Which three commands are required? (Choose three.)
A. standby 300 timers 1 110
B. standby 300 priority 90
C. standby 300 priority 110
D. standby version 2
E. standby 300 preempt
F. standby version 1
Correct Answer: CDE
New Question 4:
What are the differences between TCAM and the MAC address table?
A. The MAC address table is contained in CAM ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM
B. The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match
C. Router prefix lookups happen in CAM. MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM.
D. TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions CAM is used to build routing tables
When using Ternary Content Addressable Memory (TCAM) inside routers it\’s used for faster address lookup that enables fast routing. In switches Content, Addressable Memory (CAM) is used for building and lookup of mac address table that enables L2 forwarding decisions. Besides Longest-Prefix Matching, TCAM in today\’s routers and multilayer Switch devices are used to store ACL, QoS, and other things from upper-layer processing.
New Question 5:
Which two actions, when applied in the LAN network segment, will facilitate Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery for lightweight AP? (Choose two.)
A. Utilize DHCP option 17.
B. Configure the WLC IP address on the LAN switch.
C. Utilize DHCP option 43.
D. Configure an IP helper address on the router interface
E. Enable port security on the switch port
Correct Answer: CD
In a Cisco Unified Wireless network, the LAPs must first discover and join a WLC before they can service wireless clients.
However, this presents a question: how did the LAPs find the management IP address of the controller when it is on a different subnet?
If you do not tell the LAP where the controller is via DHCP option 43, DNS resolution of “Cisco-capwapcontroller.local_domain”, or statically configure it, the LAP does not know where in the network to find the management interface of the controller.
BGP connectivity exists between Headquarters and both remote sites; however, Remote Site 1 cannot communicate with Remote Site 2. Configure BGP according to the topology to goals:
1.
Configure R1 and R3 under the BGP process to provide reachability between Remote Site 1 and Remote Site 2. No configuration changes are permitted on R2.
2.
Ensure that the /32 networks at Remote Site 1 and Remote Site 2 can ping each other.
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 1.1.1.1, timeout is 2 seconds:
!!!!!
R3#ping 1.1.1.1 source lo0
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 1.1.1.1, timeout is 2 seconds:
A packet sent with a source address of 3.3.3.3
!!!!!
Success rate is 100 percent (5/5), round-trip min/avg/max = 1/1/1 ms
New Question 7:
How does CEF switching differ from process switching on Cisco devices?
A. CEF switching saves memory by sorting adjacency tables in dedicated memory on the line cards, and process switching stores all tables in the main memory
B. CEF switching uses adjacency tables built by the CDP protocol, and process switching uses the routing table
C. CEF switching uses dedicated hardware processors, and process switching uses the main processor
D. CEF switching uses a proprietary protocol based on IS-IS for MAC address lookup, and process switching uses in MAC address table
Correct Answer: B
Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) switching is a proprietary form of scalable switching intended to tackle the problems associated with demand caching.
With CEF switching, the information which is conventionally stored in a route cache is split up over several data structures.
The CEF code is able to maintain these data structures in the Gigabit Route Processor (GRP), and also in slave processors such as the line cards in the 12000 routers.
The data structures that provide optimized lookup for efficient packet forwarding include:
1.
The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table – CEF uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions. The FIB is conceptually similar to a routing table or information base. It maintains a mirror image of the forwarding information contained in the IP routing table. When routing or topology changes occur in the network, the IP routing table is updated, and these changes are reflected in the FIB. The FIB maintains next-hop address information based on the information in the IP routing table.
2.
Because there is a one-to-one correlation between FIB entries and routing table entries, the FIB contains all known routes and eliminates the need for route cache maintenance that is associated with switching paths such as fast switching and optimum switching.
3.
Adjacency table – Nodes in the network are said to be adjacent if they can reach each other with a single hop across a link layer. In addition to the FIB, CEF uses adjacency tables to prepend Layer 2 addressing information. The adjacency table maintains Layer 2 next-hop addresses for all FIB entries.
CEF can be enabled in one of two modes:
1.
Central CEF mode – When CEF mode is enabled, the CEF FIB and adjacency tables reside on the route processor, and the route processor performs the express forwarding. You can use CEF mode when line cards are not available for CEF switching, or when you need to use features not compatible with distributed CEF switching.
2.
Distributed CEF (dCEF) mode – When dCEF is enabled, line cards maintain identical copies of the FIB and adjacency tables. The line cards can perform the express forwarding by themselves, relieving the main processor – Gigabit Route Processor (GRP) – of involvement in the switching operation. This is the only switching method available on the Cisco 12000 Series Router.
CEF uses an Inter-Process Communication (IPC) mechanism to ensure the synchronization of FIBs and adjacency tables on the route processor and line cards.
For more information about CEF switching, see Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) White Paper.
New Question 8:
What function does vxlan perform in an SD-Access deployment?
A. policy plan forwarding
B. control plane forwarding
C. data plane forwarding
D. systems management and orchestration
Correct Answer: C
New Question 9:
An engineer must configure the strongest password authentication to locally authenticate on a router. Which configuration must be used?
A. username netadmin secret 5 $1$b1JUSkZbBS1Pyh4OzwXyZ1kSZ2
B. username netadmin secret $15b1JuSk404850110QzwXyZ1k SZ2
C. line Console 0 password $15b1Ju$
D. username netadmin secret 9 $9$vFpMfBelbRVV8SseX/bDAxtuV
Correct Answer: D
Scrypt is safer than MD5, so answer A is wrong and answer D is correct
R1(config)#username user secret 0 Specifies an UNENCRYPTED secret will follow5 Specifies an MD5 HASHED secret will follow8 Specifies a PBKDF2 HASHED secret will follow9 Specifies a SCRYPT HASHED secret will follow<0-9> Encryption types not explicitly specifiedLINE The UNENCRYPTED (cleartext) user secretLINE The UNENCRYPTED (cleartext) user secret
New Question 10:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that advertises the network prefox 192.168.5.0 session. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 11:
A network engineer is configuring Flexible Netflow and enters these commands:
Which are two results of implementing this feature instead of traditional Netflow? (Choose two.)
A. CPU and memory utilization are reduced.
B. Only the flows of top 100 talkers are exported
C. The data export flow is more secure.
D. The number of packets to be analyzed are reduced
E. The accuracy of the data to be analyzed is improved
Correct Answer: AD
New Question 12:
Which benefit is offered by a cloud infrastructure deployment but is lacking in an on-premises deployment?
A. efficient scalability
B. virtualization
C. storage capacity
D. supported systems
Correct Answer: A
New Question 13:
What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.)
A. core switch
B. vBond controller
C. edge node
D. access switch
E. border node
Correct Answer: CE
There are five basic device roles in the fabric overlay:
+
Control plane node: This node contains the settings, protocols, and mapping tables to provide the endpoint-to-location (EID-to-RLOC) mapping system for the fabric overlay. + Fabric border node: This fabric device (for example, core layer device) connects external Layer 3 networks to the SDA fabric.
+
Fabric edge node: This fabric device (for example, access or distribution layer device) connects wired endpoints to the SDA fabric.
+
Fabric WLAN controller (WLC): This fabric device connects APs and wireless endpoints to the SDA fabric.
+
Intermediate nodes: These are intermediate routers or extended switches that do not provide any sort of SD-Access fabric role other than underlay services.
New Question 14:
What is a fact about Cisco EAP-FAST?
A. It does not require a RADIUS server certificate.
Refer to the exhibit. What is displayed when the code is run?
A. The answer is 25
B. The answer is 70
C. The answer is 5
D. The answer is 100
Correct Answer: A
The “magic” function receives a number, which is 5 from the main() in this question. This function returns a result of 5 + 2*10 = 25 and the str() function converts it into a string (“25”) before printing to the terminal.
…
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A network administrator is configuring OMP in vManage to advertise all the paths for the same prefix from a site that has two WAN Edge devices Each WAN Edge device is connected to three ISPs and two private MPLS transports. What is the minimum value for \’ Number of Paths advertised per Prefix” that should be configured?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 10
Correct Answer: D
New Question 2:
A network administrator is configuring QoS on a Vedge 5000 router and needs to enable it on the transport side interface. Which policy setting must be selected to accomplish this goal?
A. Cloud QoS Service side
B. Cloud QoS
C. Netflow
D. Application
Correct Answer: B
New Question 3:
What is a requirement for a WAN Edge to reach vManage, vBond, and vSmart controllers in a data center?
An engineer is tasked to improve throughput for connection-oriented traffic by decreasing round-trip latency Which configuration will achieve this goal?
A network administrator is setting the queueing value for voice traffic for one of the WAN Edge routers using vManager GUI. Which queue value be set to accomplish this task?
Drag and drop the components from the left onto the corresponding Cisco NFV infrastructure Building Blocks on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
…
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Number of exam questions
Exam name
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Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps ( 300-215 CBRFIR )
An engineer is investigating a ticket from the accounting department in which a user discovered an unexpected application on their workstation. Several alerts are seen from the intrusion detection system of unknown outgoing internet traffic from this workstation. The engineer also notices a degraded processing capability, which complicates the analysis process. Which two actions should the engineer take? (Choose two.)
A. Restore to a system recovery point. B. Replace the faulty CPU. C. Disconnect from the network. D. Format the workstation drives. E. Take an image of the workstation.
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is analyzing a Wireshark file to determine the HTTP request that caused the initial Ursnif banking Trojan binary to download. Which filter did the engineer apply to sort the Wireshark traffic logs?
A. HTTP. request.un matches B. tls. handshake.type ==1 C. TCP. port eq 25 D. TCP. window_size ==0
What is the transmogrify anti-forensics technique?
A. hiding a section of a malicious file in unused areas of a file B. sending malicious files over a public network by encapsulation C. concealing malicious files in ordinary or unsuspecting places D. changing the file header of a malicious file to another file type
A security team receives reports of multiple files causing suspicious activity on users’ workstations. The file attempted to access highly confidential information in a centralized file server. Which two actions should be taken by a security analyst to evaluate the file in a sandbox? (Choose two.)
A. Inspect registry entries B. Inspect processes. C. Inspect file hash. D. Inspect file type. E. Inspect PE header.
A security team detected an above-average amount of inbound TCP/135 connection attempts from unidentified senders. The security team is responding based on their incident response playbook. Which two elements are part of the eradication phase for this incident? (Choose two.)
A. anti-malware software B. data and workload isolation C. centralized user management D. intrusion prevention system E. enterprise block listing solution
A. to identify critical systems and resources in an organization B. to ensure systems are in place to prevent an attack C. to determine security weaknesses and recommend solutions D. to contain an attack and prevent it from spreading
An employee receives an email from a “trusted” person containing a hyperlink that is malvertising. The employee clicks the link and the malware downloads. An information analyst observes an alert at the SIEM and engages the cybersecurity team to conduct an analysis of this incident in accordance with the incident response plan. Which event detail should be included in this root cause analysis?
A. phishing email sent to the victim B. alarm raised by the SIEM C. information from the email header D. alert identified by the cybersecurity team
A network host is infected with malware by an attacker who uses the host to make calls for files and shuttle traffic to bots. This attack went undetected and resulted in a significant loss. The organization wants to ensure this does not happen in the future and needs a security solution that will generate alerts when command and control communication from an infected device is detected. Which network security solution should be recommended?
A. Cisco Secure Firewall ASA B. Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense (Firepower) C. Cisco Secure Email Gateway (ESA) D. Cisco Secure Web Appliance (WSA)
An engineer received a call to assist with an ongoing DDoS attack. The Apache server is being targeted, and availability is compromised. Which step should be taken to identify the origin of the threat?
A. An engineer should check the list of usernames currently logged in by running the command $ who | cut –d’ ‘ -f1| sort | uniq
B. An engineer should check the server’s processes by running commands ps -aux and Sudo ps -a.
C. An engineer should check the services on the machine by running the command service -status-all.
D. An engineer should check the last hundred entries of a web server with the command sudo tail -100 / var/log/apache2/access.log.
A scanner detected a malware-infected file on an endpoint that is attempting to beacon to an external site.
An analyst has reviewed the IPS and SIEM logs but is unable to identify the file’s behavior. Which logs should be reviewed next to evaluate this file further?
A. email security appliance B. DNS server C. Antivirus solution D. network device
A security team received reports of users receiving emails linked to external or unknown URLs that are non-returnable and non-deliverable. The ISP also reported a 500% increase in the amount of ingress and egress email traffic received. After detecting the problem, the security team moves to the recovery phase in their incident response plan. Which two actions should be taken in the recovery phase of this incident? (Choose two.)
A. verify the breadth of the attack B. collect logs C. request packet capture D. remove vulnerabilities E. scan hosts with updated signatures
An engineer received a report of a suspicious email from an employee. The employee had already opened the attachment, which was an empty Word document. The engineer cannot identify any clear signs of compromise but while reviewing running processes, observes that PowerShell.exe was spawned by cmd.exe with a grandparent winword.exe process. What is the recommended action the engineer should take?
A. Upload the file signature to threat intelligence tools to determine if the file is malicious. B. Monitor processes as this is a standard behavior of Word macro embedded documents. C. Contain the threat for further analysis as this is an indication of suspicious activity. D. Investigate the sender of the email and communicate with the employee to determine the motives.
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the capabilities on the left onto the Cisco security solutions on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
…
Verify CyberOps Professional 300-215 exam answers:
Numbers:
Q1
Q2
Q3
Q4
Q5
Q6
Q7
Q8
Q9
Q10
Q11
Q12
Q13
Q14
Q15
Answers:
AE
B
D
BC
CD
D
D
B
B
D
B
A
DE
A
IMAGE
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Which three customer business objectives does Cisco\’s Advanced Threat solutions address? (Choose Three)
A. Lower TCO through intelligent API management
B. Visibility and control with a managed environment
C. Accelerated firewall implementation
D. Complete protection with holistic defense
E. Comprehensive support with flexible solutions
F. Secure communications with advanced access
Correct Answer: B,D,E
New Question 17:
Which two attack vectors are protected by NGFW? (Choose Two)
A. Mobile
B. Email
C. Cloud
D. Web
E. Data Center
Correct Answer: C, E
New Question 18:
What does ThreatGrid integrate?
A. File reputation and behavioral indications of compromise
B. B. Threat intelligence and access control
C. File trajectory and time signatures
D. Malware analysis and threat intelligence
Correct Answer: D
New Question 19:
What are the three major features of StealthWatch? (Choose Three)
A. Malware clustering
B. Threat-based anomaly detection
C. Netflow monitoring
D. Data Loss Prevention
E. Realtime sandboxing
F. Forensic investigation
Correct Answer: B,C,F
New Question 20:
Which two attack vectors are protected by Malware Protection? (Choose Two)
A. Email
B. Mobile
C. Voicemail
D. Data Center
E. Web
Correct Answer: A, B
New Question 21:
On average, how many days elapse before businesses discover that they have been hacked?
A. 10
B. 50
C. 30
D. 70
Correct Answer: B
New Question 22:
What do Cisco NGFW fully integrated platforms offer that allow other security components to participate to achieve pervasive and consistent enforcement?
A. Context telemetry, and profiling sources
B. intelligence sources, telemetry, and shared intelligence
C. Telemetry, shared intelligence, and profiling sources
D. Context, telemetry, and intelligence sources
Correct Answer: A
New Question 23:
Which two attack vectors are protected by Cyber Threat DefenseandNetwork Analytics? (Choose Two)
A. Web
B. Endpoints
C. Cloud
D. Email
E. Data Center
Correct Answer: A, C
New Question 24:
Which two Cisco products remediate network, cloud, and endpoint threats? (Choose two.)
A. pxGrid
B. Cisco Security Connector
C. Duo
D. Stealthwatch
E. AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: D, E
New Question 25:
How does SD-WAN protect network traffic from end-to-end\’?
A. Segmentation
B. Automation
C. Analyzation
D. Management
Correct Answer: A
New Question 26:
What does TrustSec assign to the user or device traffic at ingress that enforces the access policy based on the tag in the infrastructure?
A. Ingress VLAN
B. Access Control List
C. Security Group Tag
D. VXLAN
Correct Answer: C
New Question 27:
Which two products are involved in discovering classifying and verifying profiles? (Choose Two)
A. Industrial Network Director
B. Duo
C. Cisco Security Connector
D. Advanced Malware Protection
E. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B, E
New Question 28:
What are two reasons why perimeter-based network security is no longer sufficient? (Choose Two)
A. More users
B. More IT professionals
C. More devices
D. More networks
E. More vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: A, C
New Question 29:
Which feature of ISE has the capability to encounter a device new on the market and correctly profile it to onboard it quickly and easily?
A. Context-aware access
B. Centralized policy management
C. Platform exchange grid
D. Device profiling
Correct Answer: D
New Question 30:
What are the three main solutions areas for Advanced Threat? (Choose Three)
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New Question 1:
How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?
A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing
B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results
C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations
D. clients can access the results immediately
Correct Answer: C
New Question 2:
What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)
A. multi-platform vendor abstraction
B. compiles to executables that run on network devices
C. designed to reflect networking concepts
D. directly maps to JavaScript
E. command line is driven interface
Correct Answer: AC
New Question 3:
Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?
A. layer 2 switch
B. proxy server
C. router
D. load balancer
Correct Answer: C
New Question 4:
Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?
A. DNS
B. NAT
C. SNMP
D. DHCP
Correct Answer: A
New Question 5:
Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?
A. A router along the path has the wrong time.
B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.
C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.
D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.
Correct Answer: B
New Question 6:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the value of the node defined by this YANG structure?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
New Question 7:
What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?
A. MAC address
B. IPv6 address
C. spanning tree D. IPv4 address
Correct Answer: A
New Question 8:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?
A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01
B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01
C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01
D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01
Correct Answer: D
New Question 9:
A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?
A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.
B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.
C. The sever accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.
D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.
What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?
A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively
B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application
C. provides translation for an application\’s hostname to its IP address
D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application
Correct Answer: B
New Question 12:
A small company has 5 servers and 50 clients. What are two reasons an engineer should split this network into separate client and server subnets? (Choose two.)
A. Subnets will split domains to limit failures.
B. A router will limit the traffic types between the clients and servers.
C. Subnets provide more IP address space for clients and servers.
D. A router will bridge the traffic between clients and servers.
E. Internet access to the servers will be denied on the router.
Correct Answer: AB
New Question 13:
How does a developer create and switch to a new branch called “my-bug-fix” to develop a product fix?
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