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New Question 1:
How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?
A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing
B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results
C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations
D. clients can access the results immediately
Correct Answer: C
New Question 2:
What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)
A. multi-platform vendor abstraction
B. compiles to executables that run on network devices
C. designed to reflect networking concepts
D. directly maps to JavaScript
E. command line is driven interface
Correct Answer: AC
New Question 3:
Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?
A. layer 2 switch
B. proxy server
C. router
D. load balancer
Correct Answer: C
New Question 4:
Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?
A. DNS
B. NAT
C. SNMP
D. DHCP
Correct Answer: A
New Question 5:
Users cannot access a web server and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?
A. A router along the path has the wrong time.
B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in the wrong direction.
C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.
D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.
Correct Answer: B
New Question 6:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the value of the node defined by this YANG structure?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
New Question 7:
What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?
A. MAC address
B. IPv6 address
C. spanning tree D. IPv4 address
Correct Answer: A
New Question 8:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?
A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01
B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01
C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01
D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01
Correct Answer: D
New Question 9:
A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?
A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.
B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.
C. The sever accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.
D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.
What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?
A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively
B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application
C. provides translation for an application\’s hostname to its IP address
D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application
Correct Answer: B
New Question 12:
A small company has 5 servers and 50 clients. What are two reasons an engineer should split this network into separate client and server subnets? (Choose two.)
A. Subnets will split domains to limit failures.
B. A router will limit the traffic types between the clients and servers.
C. Subnets provide more IP address space for clients and servers.
D. A router will bridge the traffic between clients and servers.
E. Internet access to the servers will be denied on the router.
Correct Answer: AB
New Question 13:
How does a developer create and switch to a new branch called “my-bug-fix” to develop a product fix?
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Refer to the exhibit. A packet arrives on the VPN concentrator with source IP 10.168.70.3 and is destined for IP 10.116.32.4. What is the next hop for the packet, based on this concentrator routing table?
A. The concentrator gateway (10.128.124.62) is the next hop.
B. Not enough detail is available to determine the next hop.
C. The packet is stopped.
D. The Auto VPN peer “Store 1532 ? appliance” is the next hop.
Company iPads are enrolled in Systems Manager without supervision, and profiles are pushed through Systems Manager. Which outcome occurs when a user attempts to remove the “Meraki Management” profile on an iPad?
A. The “Meraki Management” profile cannot be removed.
B. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed and then pushed automatically by the Systems Manager.
C. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed. All the profiles that Systems Manager pushed are also removed.
D. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed. All the profiles Systems Manager pushed remain.
Refer to the exhibit. What are the Loss and Average Latency statistics based on?
A. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing hostnames on the Insight > Web App Health page
B. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP addresses on the Security and SD-WAN > Firewall page
C. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP address that is configured on the Security and SD-WAN > SD-WAN and Traffic Shaping page
D. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP addresses on the Help > Firewall info page
One thousand concurrent users stream video to their laptops. A 30/70 split between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz is used. Based on client count, how many APs (rounded to the nearest whole number) are needed?
Refer to the exhibit. What does the MX Security Appliance send to determine whether VPN traffic exceeds the configured latency threshold in the VoIP custom performance class?
A. 1000-byte TCP probes every second, through VPN tunnels that are established over the primary WAN link.
B. 100-byte UDP probes every second, through VPN tunnels that are established over every WAN link.
C. 100-byte UDP probes every second, through VPN tunnels that are established over the primary WAN link.
D. 1000-byte TCP probes every second, through VPN tunnels that are established over every WAN link.
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New Question 1:
DRAG DROP
A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency. Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 2:
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).
When the packet from the attacker reaches Switch A, Switch A only sees the first VLAN 10 and it matches with its native VLAN 10 so this VLAN tag is removed. Switch A forwards the frame out all links with the same native VLAN 10. Switch B
receives the frame with an tag of VLAN 20 so it removes this tag and forwards out to the Victim computer.
Note: This attack only works if the trunk (between two switches) has the same native VLAN as the attacker.
To mitigate this type of attack, you can use VLAN access control lists (VACLs, which applies to all traffic within a VLAN. We can use VACL to drop attacker traffic to specific victims/servers) or implement Private VLANs.
ARP attack (like ARP poisoning/spoofing) is a type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified ARP messages over a local area network as ARP allows a gratuitous reply from a host even if an ARP request was not received. This
results in the linking of an attacker\’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. This is an attack based on ARP which is at Layer 2. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network which can be used to mitigate this type of attack.
New Question 3:
Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Layer 2 Security Mechanism includes WPA+WPA2, 802.1X, Static WEP, and CKIP while Layer 3 Security Mechanisms (for WLAN) includes IPSec, VPN Pass-Through, Web Passthrough …
New Question 4:
DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
The “IP route” and “IP addr show eth1” are Linux commands.
1.
“IP route”: display the routing table
2.
“IP address show eth1”: get depth information (only on eth1 interface) about your network interfaces like IP Address, MAC Address information
New Question 5:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 6:
Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
This subnet question requires us to grasp how to subnet very well. To quickly find out the subnet range, we have to find out the increment and the network address of each subnet. Let\’s take an example with the subnet 172.28.228.144/18:
From the /18 (= 1100 0000 in the 3rd octet), we find out the increment is 64. Therefore the network address of this subnet must be the greatest multiple of the increment but not greater than the value in the 3rd octet (228). We can find out the 3rd octet of the network address is 192 (because 192 = 64 * 3 and 192 < 228) -> The network address is 172.28.192.0. So the first usable host should be 172.28.192.1 and it matches with the 5th answer on the right. In this case we don\’t need to calculate the broadcast address because we found the correct answer.
Let\’s take another example with subnet 172.28.228.144/23 -> The increment is 2 (as /23 = 1111 1110 in 3rd octet) -> The 3rd octet of the network address is 228 (because 228 is the multiply of 2 and equal to the 3rd octet) -> The network address is 172.28.228.0 -> The first usable host is 172.28.228.1. It is not necessary but if we want to find out the broadcast address of this subnet, we can find out the next network address, which is 172.28.(228 + the increment number).0 or
172.28.230.0 then reduce 1 bit -> 172.28.229.255 is the broadcast address of our subnet. Therefore the last usable host is 172.28.229.254.
New Question 7:
Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 8:
Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
The service port can be used for management purposes, primarily for out-of-band management. However, AP management traffic is not possible across the service port. In most cases, the service port is used as a “last resort” means of accessing the controller GUI for management purposes. For example, in the case where the system distribution ports on the controller are down or their communication to the wired network is otherwise degraded.
A dynamic interface with the Dynamic AP Management option enabled is used as the tunnel source for packets from the controller to the access point and as the destination for CAPWAP packets from the access point to the controller. The virtual interface is used to support mobility management, Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) relay, and embedded Layer 3 security such as guest web authentication. It also maintains the DNS gateway hostname used by Layer 3 security and mobility managers to verify the source of certificates when Layer 3 web authorization is enabled.
New Question 9:
Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 10:
Drag and drop the routing table components on the left onto the corresponding letter from the exhibit on the right. not all options are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 11:
Drag and drop each broadcast IP address on the left to the Broadcast Address column on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Question 12:
An interface has been configured with the access list that is shown below.
On the basis of that access list, drag each information packet on the left to the appropriate category on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 13:
Order the DHCP message types as they would occur between a DHCP client and a DHCP server.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 14:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of attack that they mitigate on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
802.1q double-tagging VLAN-hopping attack: configure the native VLAN with a nondefault VLAN ID MAC flooding attack: configure 802.1x authenticate man-in-the-middle spoofing attack: configure DHCP snooping switch-spoofing VLAN-hopping attack: disable DTP
New Question 15:
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
…
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Tips: Answers will be announced at the end of the article
QUESTION 1:
An engineer is tasked with designing a dual BGP peering solution with a service provider. The design must meet these conditions:
1. The routers will not learn any prefix with a subnet mask greater than /24.
2. The routers will determine the routes to include in the routing table based on the length of the mask alone.
3. The routers will make this selection regardless of the service provider configuration.
Which solution should the engineer include in the design?
A. Use a route map and access list to block the desired networks, and apply the route map to BGP neighbors inbound.
B. Use a route map and prefix list to block the desired networks, and apply the route map to BGP neighbors outbound.
C. Use an IP prefix list to block the desired networks and apply the IP prefix list to BGP neighbors outbound.
D. Use an IP prefix list to block the desired networks and apply the IP prefix list to BGP neighbors inbound.
QUESTION 2:
A company is using OSPF between its HQ location and a branch office. HQ is assigned area 0 and the branch office is assigned area 1. The company purchases a second branch office, but due to circuit delays to HQ, it decides to connect the new branch office to the creating branch office as a temporary measure. The new branch office is assigned area 2.
Which OSPF configuration enables all three locations to exchange routes?
A. The existing branch office must be configured as a stub area B. A virtual link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ C. A sham link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ D. The new branch office must be configured as a stub area
QUESTION 3:
How is end-to-end microsegmentation enforced in a Cisco SD-Access architecture?
A. VLANs are used to segment traffic at Layer 2. B. 5-tuples and ACLs are used to permit or deny traffic. C. SGTs and SGTACLs are used to control access to various resources. D. VRFs are used to segment traffic at Layer 3.
QUESTION 4:
Which two routing protocols allow for unequal cost load balancing? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP B. IS-IS C. BGP D. OSPF E. RIPng
QUESTION 5:
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the telemetry mode they apply to on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6:
How is redundancy achieved among Cisco vBond Orchestrators in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?
A. The IP addresses of all Orchestrators are mapped to a single DNS name. B. The closest Orchestrator to each Cisco WAN Edge router is selected. C. Cisco WAN Edge routers are configured with all Orchestrators using their IP addresses and priority. D. A single Cisco Orchestrator is deployed in each network.
QUESTION 7:
Refer to the exhibit. AS65533 and AS65530 are announcing a partial Internet routing table as well as their IP subnets.
An architect must create a design that ensures AS64512 does not become a transit AS. Which filtering solution must the architect choose?
A. no-advertise B. next-hop C. no-export D. maximum-prefix
QUESTION 8:
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must design an automatic failover solution. The solution should allow HSRP to detect a WAN 1 failure and initiate an automatic failover, making router R2 the active HSRP router. Which two solutions should the engineer choose? (Choose two.)
A. Implement Enhanced Object Tracking on roster R1 B. use a floating static route C. Implement IP SLA on router R1 D. Implement PBR on router R1 E. use IP source routing
QUESTION 9:
Which two functions does the control plane node provide in a Cisco SD-Access architecture? (Choose two.)
A. LISP proxy ETR B. host tracking database C. policy mapping D. map server E. endpoint registration
QUESTION 10:
How is sub-second failure of a transport link detected in a Cisco SD-WAN network?
A. Hellos are sent between the WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller. B. BFD runs on the IPsec tunnels between WAN Edge routers. C. BGP is used between WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller. D. Link state change messages are sent between vSmart controllers.
QUESTION 11:
Refer to the exhibit. The distribution switches serve as the layer 3 boundary. HSRP preemption is enabled. When the primary switch comes back after a failure, traffic is initially dropped. Which solution must be implemented to improve the design?
A. split-horizon B. summarization C. down bit D. route tags
QUESTION 12:
Refer to the exhibit. An architect must design an IP addressing scheme for a multisite network connected via a WAN transit. The campus site must accommodate 12,000 devices and the branch sites must accommodate 1,000 devices.
Which address scheme optimizes network device resources, contains convergence events to the different blocks of the network, and ensures future growth of the network?
A. Campus: 10.0.0.0/18 Branch1: 10.0.192.0/21 Branch2: 10.0.200.0/21 B. Campus: 10.0.0.0/16 Branchi: 10.255.0.0/20 Branch2: 10.255.16.0/20 C. Campus: 10.0.0.0/10 Branch1: 10.64.0.0/10 Branch2: 10.128.0.0/10 D. Campus: 10.0.0.0/20 Branch1: 10.0.64.0/21 Branch2: 10.0.128.0/21
QUESTION 13:
A customer with an IPv4 only network topology wants to enable IPv6 connectivity while preserving the IPv4 topology services. The customer plans to migrate IPv4 services to the IPv6 topology, then decommission the IPv4 topology.
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Cisco 700-755 exam questions online practice test:
Tips: Verify the answer at the end of the article
Question 1:
Which Cisco Catalyst 9100 AP feature adds capacity by automatically changing the access points from 2.4 and 5GHz to Dual 5GHz?
A. FRA
B. SMU
C. CleanAir
D. wIPS
Question 2:
When enabled which two features will help extend the retention capacity of the Meraki MV smart cameras? (Choose two)
A. Direct stream-based retention
B. Schedule-based retention
C. Hybrid archives
D. Cloud archives
E. Motion-based retention
Question 3:
In the event an entire site went down: which activity does Cisco\’s HyperFlex Stretched Cluster still enable a user to do?
A. continue VM replication synchronously
B. access the entire cluster
C. access only the remaining node or nodes in the cluster
D. recover lost data
Question 4:
What separates Cisco Meraki from its competitors?
A. kit obtained via promotional seminars can be added and integrated into the POC kit to enhance the service offering
B. the cloud architecture and product experience itself
C. testing the gear live by attending marketing webinars
D. dedicated team and the Cisco Meraki sales specialist attend every whiteboarding session to better illustrate complex topics
Question 5:
Which two features are included in every licensed MX security appliance as part of its unified threat management solution? (Choose two )
A. Stateless L3/L7 firewalls
B. OA (change of authorization)
C. SD-WAN
D. Umbrella integration (DNS firewall)
E. Auto VPN (site-to-site VPN)
Question 6:
Which two capabilities are included in the System Manager\’s robust enterprise mobility management (EMM) feature set? (Choose two )
A. Rapid provisioning (enrollment)
B. Emergency broadcast (alerts)
C. Remote troubleshooting
D. RFID tag tracking
E. OS version control
Question 7:
What is one of the mam functionalities of the Meraki Go mobile app?
A. used to manage and renew Meraki Go licenses
B. for opening support tickets with the Meraki Go support team
C. to assist with the fast onboarding of Meraki Go products
D. to help reduce the power consumption of network devices
Question 8:
Using Cisco Security, what is the remediation time for a previously unknown threat?
A. under 10 minutes
B. under 15 minutes
C. under 5 minutes
D. under 8 minutes
E. under 30 minutes
Question 9:
By how much can Cisco UCS reduce provisioning time?
A. 6 hours to 1 minute
B. 12 weeks to 10 minutes
C. 1 month to 1 hour
D. 6 months to 2 weeks
E. 2 weeks to 6 hours
Question 10:
What is a function of Cisco Intersight?
A. Cisco Intersight provides Platform-as-a-Service management
B. Cisco Intersight includes a RESTful API to provide full programmability
C. Cisco Intersight is a great start for core management and simplification
D. Cisco Intersight automates many tasks including RBAC and reporting of cases to TAC
Question 11:
Which two products are considered a part of the Cisco Meraki full stack? (Choose two.)
A. MX security appliances
B. MR wireless access points
C. Catalyst switches
D. UCS servers
E. Aironet wireless access points
Question 12:
Which layout can Cisco Webex flexible video conference support?
A. active speaker video view where the participant talking will have the most prominent view on the screen
B. active-active video view where two participants can engage on-screen at the same time
C. presenter video view where the meeting host shares their desktop on the screen
D. grid view where the active speaker is visible and other participants show on the bottom strip
Question 13:
Which two Cisco Small Business series switches are smart-managed? (Choose two.)
A. 220
B. 250
C. 550X
D. 350X
E. 110
Question 14:
Which three product families comprise the Meraki Go network stack? (Choose three )
A. Access points
B. Security content filters
C. Network routers
D. Security gateway and firewall
E. Network switches
Question 15:
What is the built-in technology on the MR platform that utilizes one-way beacon advertising to interact with applications?
A. Adaptive Radio Management
B. BLE (Bluetooth Low Energy)
C. BeamFlex
D. Radio Resource Management
……
Verify answer:
Numbers:
Q1
Q2
Q3
Q4
Q5
Q6
Q7
Q8
Q9
Q10
Q11
Q12
Q13
Q14
Q15
Answers:
A
BE
B
B
CE
AC
C
A
B
D
AB
A
AB
ADE
B
The Express Specialization Small Business certification is a special certification that belongs to the cisco Associate Certification and is the only certification.
700-755 SBTO certification exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills to educate, deploy and activate small business solutions with particular emphasis on the Cisco Designed small business portfolio.
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Updated 2022.7
QUESTION 1:
A Cisco 8540 WLC manages Cisco Aironet 4800 Series APs and sends AoA data to a Cisco CMX 3375 Appliance for Hyperlocation. The load from the WLC is distributed to another virtual CMX server using CMX grouping. The virtual CMX server shows location RSSI data and not Hyperiocation. No AOA metrics are shown on the metrics page of the CMX virtual appliance under System > Metrics > Location Metrics.
How must the network administrator RESOLVE THIS ISSUE?
A. Allow port 2003 for AoA packets to flow through between the CMX appliances. B. Enable Wireless > Access Points > Global configuration > Enable Hyperlocation on the WLC. C. Use one Hyperlocation-enabled WL.C and CMX for AoA data D. Enable the HALO module on the CMX appliance for the data collection
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2:
Where is Cisco Hyperlocation enabled on a Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller web interface?
A. Policy Profile B. AP Join Profile C. Flex Profile D. RF Profile
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3:
An engineer wants to upgrade the APs in a Cisco FlexConnect group. To accomplish this upgrade, the FlexConnect AP Upgrade setting will be used One AP of each model with the lowest MAC address in the group must receive the upgrade directly from the controller.
Which action accomplishes this direct upgrade?
A. Reboot all APs before the upgrade. B. Remove the APs from the group C. Do not set any master APs. 9 0 D. Allocate the master APs to different groups
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4:
The Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold is currently set to -50 dBm. After reviewing the wireless user location, discrepancies have been noticed. To improve the Cisco Hyperlocation accuracy, an engineer attempts to change the detection threshold to -100 dBm However, the Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller does not allow this change to be applied.
What actions should be taken to resolve this issue?
A. Place the APs to monitor the mode shutdown of the radios, and then change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold
B. Shut down all radios on the controller, change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection range, and enable the radios again.
C. Disable Cisco Hyperlocation. change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold and then enable it
D. Create a new profile on Cisco CMX with the new Cisco Hyperlocation detection range, and apply it to the WL AN.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5:
A network engineer has been hired to perform a new MSE implementation on an existing network. The MSE must be installed in a different network than the Cisco WLC.
Which configuration allows the devices to communicate over NMSP?
A. Allow UDP/16113portonthe central switch. B. Allow TCP/16666 port on the router. C. Allow TCP/16113 port on the firewall. D. Allow UDP/16666 port on the VPN router.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6:
Which devices can be tracked with the Cisco Context-Aware Services?
A. wired and wireless devices B. wireless devices C. wired devices D. Cisco certified wireless devices
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7:
A network engineer needs to configure multicast in the network. The implementation will use multiple multicast groups and PIM routers.
Which address provides automatic discovery of the best RP for each multicast group?
A. 224.0.0.13 B. 224.0.0.14 C. 224.0.1.39 D. 224.0.1.40
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8:
A Cisco CMX 3375 appliance on the 10.6.1 version code counts duplicate client entries, which creates wrong location analytics. The issue is primarily from iOS clients with the private MAC address feature enabled. Enabling this feature requires an upgrade of the Cisco CMX 3375 appliance in a high availability pair to version 10.6.3. SCP transfers the Cisco CMX image, but the upgrade script run fails.
Which configuration change resolves this issue?
A. Upgrade the high availability pair to version 10.6.2 image first and then upgrade to version 10.6.3.
B. Save configuration and use the upgrade script to upgrade the high availability pair without breaking the high availability.
C. Break the high availability using the cmxha config disable command and upgrade the primary and secondary individuality.
D. Run root patch to first upgrade to version 10.6.2 and then migrate to version 10.6.3.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9:
An engineer has implemented 802.1x authentication on the wireless network utilizing the internal database of a RADIUS server. Some clients reported that they are unable to connect. After troubleshooting, it is found that PEAP authentication is failing. A debug showed the server is sending an Access-Reject message.
Which action must be taken to resolve authentication?
A. Use the user password that is configured on the server. B. Disable the server certificate to be validated on the client. C. Update the client certificate to match the user account. D. Replace the client certificates from the CA with the server certificate.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10:
An engineer configured a Cisco AireOS controller with two TACACS+ servers. The engineer notices that when the primary TACACS+ server fails, the WLC starts using the secondary server as expected, but the WLC does not use the primary server again until the secondary server fails or the controller is rebooted.
Which cause of this issue is true?
A. Fallback is enabled B. Fallback is disabled C. DNS query is disabled D. DNS query is enabled
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11:
When configuring a Cisco WLC, which CLI command adds a VLAN with a VLAN ID of 30 to a FlexConnect group named BranchA-FCG?
A. config flexconnect BranchA-FCG vlan 30 add B. config flexconnect group BranchA-FCG vlan add 30 C. config flexconnect group BranchA-FCG vlan 30 add D. config flexconnect BranchA-FCG vlan add 30
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12:
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator deploys the DHCP profiler service in two ISE servers: 10.3.10.101 and 10.3.10.102. All BYOD devices connecting to WLAN on VLAN63 have been incorrectly profiled and are assigned as unknown profiled endpoints.
Which action efficiently rectifies the issue according to Cisco recommendations?
A. Nothing needed to be added to the Cisco WLC or VLAN interface. The ISE configuration must be fixed.
B. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC.
C. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC and run the IP helper-address command under the VLAN interface to point to DHCP and the two ISE servers.
D. Keep DHCP proxy enabled on the Cisco WLC and define a helper-address under the VLAN interface to point to the two ISE servers.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13:
The marketing department creates a promotion video for the branch store. Only interested hosts must receive the video over wireless multicast.
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Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a configuration that prevents R3from receiving the LSA about 172.16.1.4/32. Which configuration set achieves this goal? [Missing the exhibit]
A. On R3 ip access-list standard R4_L0 deny host 172.16.1.4 permit any router ospf 200 distribute-list R4_L0 in
B. On R3 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA 1 in
C. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA 1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix IN TO-AREA1 in
D. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32 router ospf 200 area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA1 out
QUESTION 2:
Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?
A. sniffer B. monitor C. bridge D. local
QUESTION 3:
Refer to the exhibit.
The EtherChannel between SW2 and SW3 is not operational which action resolves this issue?
A. Configure the channel-group mode on SW2 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to on. B. Configure the channel-group mode on SW3 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to active. C. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/0 to the trunk. D. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/1 to access.
QUESTION 4:
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0. Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?
A. EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF B. EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors C. EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost. D. EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF
……
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2022 350-401 [Q1]:
Which statements are used for error handling in Python?
A. try/catch B. try/except C. block/rescue D. catch/release
Correct Answer: B
The words “try” and “except” are Python keywords and are used to catch exceptions. For example: try: print 1/0 except ZeroDivisionError: print \’ Error! We cannot divide by zero!!!\’
2022 350-401 [Q2]:
What is the function of a fabric border node in a Cisco SD-Access environment?
A. To collect traffic flow information toward external networks B. To connect the Cisco SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks C. To attach and register clients to the fabric D. To handle an ordered list of IP addresses and locations for endpoints in the fabric.
Correct Answer: B
2022 350-401 [Q3]:
What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in the data center environment? (Choose two.)
A. Increased security B. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements C. reduced IP and MAC address requirements
D. speedy deployment E. smaller Layer 2 domain
Correct Answer: BD
Server virtualization and the use of virtual machines are profoundly changing data center dynamics. Most organizations are struggling with the cost and complexity of hosting multiple physical servers in their data centers. The expansion of the data center, a result of both scale-out server architectures and traditional “one application, one server” sprawl, has created problems in housing, powering, and cooling large numbers of underutilized servers. In addition, IT organizations continue to deal with the traditional cost and operational challenges of matching server resources to organizational needs that seem fickle and ever-changing. Virtual machines can significantly mitigate many of these challenges by enabling multiple application and operating system environments to be hosted on a single physical server while maintaining complete isolation between the guest operating systems and their respective applications. Hence, server virtualization facilitates server consolidation by enabling organizations to exchange a number of underutilized servers for a single highly utilized server running multiple virtual machines. By consolidating multiple physical servers, organizations can gain several benefits: + Underutilized servers can be retired or redeployed. + Rack space can be reclaimed. + Power and cooling loads can be reduced. + New virtual servers can be rapidly deployed. + CapEx (higher utilization means fewer servers need to be purchased) and OpEx (few servers means a simpler environment and lower maintenance costs) can be reduced.
Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?
A. ICMP echo B. UDP jitter C. CMP jitter D. TCP connect
Correct Answer: B
Cisco IOS IP SLA Responder is a Cisco IOS Software component whose functionality is to respond to Cisco IOS IP SLA request packets. The IP SLA source sends control packets before the operation starts to establish a connection to the responder. Once the control packet is acknowledged, test packets are sent to the responder. The responder inserts a time-stamp when it receives a packet and factors out the destination processing time and adds timestamps to the sent packets. This feature allows the calculation of unidirectional packet loss, latency, and jitter measurements with the kind of accuracy that is not possible with ping or another dedicated probe testing. The IP SLAs responder is a component embedded in the destination Cisco device that allows the system to anticipate and respond to IP SLAs request packets. The responder provides accurate measurements without the need for dedicated probes. UDP Jitter measures the delay, delay variation(jitter), corruption, and misordering packet loss by generating periodic UDP traffic. This operation always requires an IP SLA responder.
Which statement about a fabric access point is true?
A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node. B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node. C. It is in local mode and must connect directly to the fabric edge switch. D. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.
Correct Answer: C
Fabric mode APs continue to support the same wireless media services that traditional APs support; apply AVC, quality of service (QoS), and other wireless policies; and establish the CAPWAP control plane to the fabric WLC. Fabric APs join as local-mode APs and must be directly connected to the fabric edge node switch to enable fabric registration events, including RLOC assignment via the fabric WLC. The fabric edge nodes use CDP to recognize APs as special wired hosts, applying special port configurations and assigning the APs to a unique overlay network within a common EID space across a fabric. The assignment allows management simplification by using a single subnet to cover the AP infrastructure at a fabric site.
A. next-generation intrusion detection systems B. Layer 3 transit network devices C. content switches D. web application firewalls
Correct Answer: A
2022 350-401 [Q7]:
Which solution do laaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network?
A. VLAN B. VTEP C. VXLAN D. VRF
Correct Answer: C
2022 350-401 [Q8]:
What is the function of the fabric control plane node In a Cisco SD-Access deployment?
A. It is responsible for policy application and network segmentation in the fabric. B. It performs traffic encapsulation and security profiles enforcement in the fabric. C. It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric. D. It provides Integration with legacy nonfabric-enabled environments.
Correct Answer: C
Fabric control plane node (C): One or more network elements that implement the LISP Map-Server (MS) and Map-Resolver (MR) functionality. The control plane node`s host tracking database keeps track of all endpoints in a fabric site and associates the endpoints to fabric nodes in what is known as an EID-to- RLOC binding in LISP.
Which protocol is used to encrypt control plane traffic between SD-WAN controllers and SDWAN endpoints?
A. DTLS B. IPsec C. PGP D. HTTPS
Correct Answer: A
2022 350-401 [Q10]:
Which two statements about IP SLA are true? (Choose two)
A. It uses NetFlow for passive traffic monitoring B. It can measure MOS C. The IP SLA responder is a component in the source Cisco device D. It is Layer 2 transport-independent correct E. It uses active traffic monitoring correct F. SNMP access is not supported
Correct Answer: DE
IP SLAs allows Cisco customers to analyze IP service levels for IP applications and services, increase productivity, lower operational costs, and reduce the frequency of network outages. IP SLAs use active traffic monitoring the generation of traffic in a continuous, reliable, and predictable manner or measuring network performance. Being Layer-2 transport-independent, IP SLAs can be configured end-to-end over disparate networks to best reflect the metrics that an end-user is likely to experience. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipsla/configuration/15-mt/sla-15- mt-book/ sla_overview.html
2022 350-401 [Q11]:
DRAG-DROP Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure deployment models on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
2022 350-401 [Q12]:
What is used to measure the total output energy of a Wi-Fi device?
A. dBi B. EARP C. mW
D. dBm
Correct Answer: C
Output power is measured in mW (milliwatts). answer \’dBi\’ milliwatt is equal to one thousandth (10-3) of a watt.
2022 350-401 [Q13]:
How does the RIB differ from the FIB?
A. The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.
B. The FIB includes many routes and a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination.
C. The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route
D. The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.
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[Updated 2022.6] 300-415 Dumps exam questions
QUESTION 1:
An administrator must configure an ACL for traffic coming in from the service-side VPN on a specific WAN device with circuit ID 391897770. Which policy must be used to configure this ACL?
A. local data policy B. central data policy C. app-aware policy D. central control policy
A bank is looking for improved customer experience for applications and reduced overhead related to compliance and security. Which key feature or features of the Cisco SD-WAN solution will help the bank to achieve its goals?
A. integration with PaaS providers to offer the best possible application experience
B. QoS includes application prioritization and meeting critical applications SLA for selecting the optimal path.
C. implementation of a modem age core banking system
D. implementation of BGP across the enterprise routing for selecting the optimal path
Which VPN connects the transport-side WAN Edge interface to the underlay/WAN network?
A. VPN 1 B. VPN 511 C. VPN 0 D. VPN 512
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5:
What is a default protocol for a control plane connection?
A. HTTPS B. TLS C. IPsec D. DTLS
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1:
Which component of the Cisco SD-WAN secure extensible network provides a single pane of glass approach to network monitoring and configuration? A. APIC-EM B. vSmart C. vManage D. vBond
QUESTION 2:
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is getting a CTORGNMMIS error on a controller connection. Which action resolves this issue?
A. Configure a valid certificate on vSMART. B. Configure a valid organization name. C. Configure a valid serial number on the WAN Edge. D. Configure a valid product ID.
Which attributes are configured to uniquely identify and represent a TLOC route?
A. system IP address, link color, and encapsulation B. origin, originator, and preference C. site ID, tag, and VPN D. firewall, IPS, and application optimization
TLOC routes are the logical tunnel termination points on the vEdge routers that connect into a transport network. A TLOC route is uniquely identified and represented by a three-tuple, consisting of system IP address, link color, and encapsulation (Generic Routing Encapsulation [GRE] or IPSec). In addition to system IP address, color, and encapsulation, TLOC routes also carry attributes such as TLOC private and public IP addresses, carrier, preference, site ID, tag, and weight. For a TLOC to be considered in an active state on a particular vEdge, an active BFD session must be associated with that vEdge TLOC. https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/CVD-SD-WANDesign-2018OCT.pdf
QUESTION 4:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command allows traffic through the IPsec tunnel configured in VPN 0?
A. service netsvc1 vpn1 B. service netsvc1 address 1.1.1.1 C. service FW address 1.1.1.1 D. service local
Which configuration configures IPsec tunnels in active and standby?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D
QUESTION 6:
The network administrator is configuring a QoS scheduling policy on traffic received from transport side tunnels on WAN Edge 5000 routers at location 406141498 Which command must be configured on these devices?
A. cloud-qos B. service qos C. cloud-mis qos D. mis qos
QUESTION 7:
Which feature builds transport redundancy by using the cross link between two redundant WAN Edge routers?
A. OMP B. zero-touch provisioning C. quality of service D. TLOC extension
QUESTION 8:
Which two products that perform lifecycle management for virtual instances are supported by WAN Edge cloud routers? (Choose two.)
A. OpenStack B. AWS C. VMware vCenter D. Azure E. IBM Cloud
The Cisco SD-WAN network is configured with a default full-mesh topology. Islamabad HQ and Islamabad WAN Edges must be used as the hub sites. Hub sites MPLS TLOC must be preferred when forwarding FTP traffic based on a configured SLA class list. Which policy configuration does the network engineer use to call the SLA class and set the preferred color to MPLS?
A. Centralized Policy, Traffic Policy B. Centralized Policy, Topology C. Localized Policy, Forwarding Class D. Localized Policy, Route Policy
What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode of power allocation when an access point is connected o a PoE switch port?
A. It detects the device is a powered device B. All four pairs of the cable are used C. Power policing is enabled at the same time D. The default level is used for the access point
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QUESTION 1:
Refer to the exhibit. Rapid Threat Containment using Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) and ISE detects the threat of malware-infected 802.1x authenticated endpoints and places that endpoint into a quarantine VLAN using Adaptive Network Control policy.
Which method was used to signal ISE to quarantine the endpoints?
A. SNMP B. syslog C. REST API D. pxGrid
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2:
An engineer is developing an application that requires frequent updates to close feedback loops and enable teams to quickly apply patches. The team wants their code updates to get to market as often as possible.
Which software development approach should be used to accomplish these goals?
A. continuous delivery B. continuous integration C. continuous deployment D. continuous monitoring
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3:
Refer to the exhibit. How must these advisories be prioritized for handling?
A. The highest priority for handling depends on the type of institution deploying the devices B. Vulnerability #2 is the highest priority for every type of institution C. Vulnerability #1 and vulnerability #2 have the same priority D. Vulnerability #1 is the highest priority for every type of institution
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4:
Refer to the exhibit. Where is the MIME type that should be followed indicated?
A. x-test-debug B. strict-transport-security C. x-xss-protection D. x-content-type-options
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5:
A security architect is working in a processing center and must implement a DLP solution to detect and prevent any type of copy and paste attempts of sensitive data within unapproved applications and removable devices.
Which technical architecture must be used?
A. DLP for data in motion B. DLP for removable data C. DLP for data in use D. DLP for data at rest
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the phases to evaluate the security posture of an asset from the left onto the activity that happens during the phases on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7:
DRAG DROP An organization lost connectivity to critical servers, and users cannot access business applications and internal websites. An engineer checks the network devices to investigate the outage and determines that all devices are functioning. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to continue investigating this issue. Not all options are used. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8:
What is a principle of Infrastructure as Code?
A. System maintenance is delegated to software systems B. Comprehensive initial designs support robust systems C. Scripts and manual configurations work together to ensure repeatable routines D. System downtime is grouped and scheduled across the infrastructure
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9:
An employee abused PowerShell commands and script interpreters, which lead to an indicator of compromise (IOC) trigger. The IOC event shows that a known malicious file has been executed, and there is an increased likelihood of a breach.
Which indicator generated this IOC event?
A. ExecutedMalware.ioc B. Crossrider.ioc C. ConnectToSuspiciousDomain.ioc
D. W32 AccesschkUtility.ioc
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10:
Refer to the exhibit. Which indicator of compromise is represented by this STIX?
A. website redirecting traffic to ransomware server B. website hosting malware to download files C. web server vulnerability exploited by malware D. cross-site scripting vulnerability to backdoor server
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11:
A security expert is investigating a breach that resulted in a $32 million loss from customer accounts. Hackers were able to steal API keys and two-factor codes due to a vulnerability that was introduced in a new code a few weeks before the attack.
Which step was missed that would have prevented this breach?
A. use of the Nmap tool to identify the vulnerability when the new code was deployed B. implementation of a firewall and intrusion detection system C. implementation of an endpoint protection system D. use of SecDevOps to detect the vulnerability during development
An analyst is alerted for a malicious file hash. After analysis, the analyst determined that an internal workstation is communicating over port 80 with an external server and that the file hash is associated with Duqu malware.
Which tactics, techniques, and procedures align with this analysis?
A. Command and Control, Application Layer Protocol, Duqu B. Discovery, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu C. Lateral Movement, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu D. Discovery, System Network Configuration Discovery, Duqu
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QUESTION 1:
An engineer needs dynamic routing between two routers and is unable to establish OSPF adjacency. The output of the show ip ospf neighbor command shows that the neighbor state is EXSTART/EXCHANGE. Which action should be taken to resolve this issue?
A. match the passwords B. match the hello timers C. match the MTUs D. match the network types
Correct Answer: C
The problem occurs most frequently when attempting to run OSPF between a Cisco router and another vendor\’s router. The problem occurs when the maximum transmission unit (MTU) settings for neighboring router interfaces don\’t match. If the router with the higher MTU sends a packet larger than the MTU set on the neighboring router, the neighboring router ignores the packet.
QUESTION 2:
Refer to the exhibit. Users report that IP addresses cannot be acquired from the DHCP server. The DHCP server is configured as shown. About 300 total nonconcurrent users are using this DHCP server, but none of them are active for more than two hours per day. Which action fixes the issue within the current resources?
A. Modify the subnet mask to the network 192.168.1.0 255.255.254.0 command in the DHCP pool B. Configure the DHCP lease time to a smaller value C. Configure the DHCP lease time to a bigger value D. Add the network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 command to the DHCP pool
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3:
You recently implemented SNMPv3 to increase the security of your network management system. A partial output of the show run command displays the following output that relates to SNMP.
snmp-server group NORMAL v3 noauth read NORMAL write NORMAL Which of the following statements is true of this configuration?
A. it provides encryption, but it does not provide authentication B. it provides neither authentication nor encryption C. it provides authentication, but it does not provide encryption D. it provides both authentication and encryption
Correct Answer: B
It provides neither authentication nor encryption. In SNMPv3 there are three combinations of security that can be used:
noAuthNoPriv- no authentication and no encryption noauth keyword in the configuration AuthNoPriv – messages are authenticated but not encrypted auth keyword in the configuration AuthPriv – messages are authenticated and encrypted priv keyword in the configuration In this case, the keyword noauth in the configuration indicates that no authentication and no encryption are provided. This makes the implementation no more secure than SNMPv1 or SNMPv2.
In SNMPv1 and SNMPv2, authentication is performed using a community string. When you implement SNMP using the noauth keyword, it does not use community strings for authentication. Instead it uses the configured user or group name (in this case NORMAL). Regardless, it does not provide either authentication or encryption.
A network administrator is discovering a Cisco Catalyst 9300 and a Cisco WLC 3504 in Cisco DNA Center. The Catalyst 9300 is added successfully. However, the WLC is showing the error “uncontactable” when the administrator tries to add it to Cisco DNA Center. Which action discovers WLC in Cisco DNA Center successfully?
A. Delete the WLC 3504 from Cisco DNA Center and add it to Cisco DNA Center again. B. Add the WLC 3504 under the hierarchy of the Catalyst 9300 connected devices. C. Copy the .cert file from the Cisco DNA Center on the USB and upload it to the WLC 3504. D. Copy the .pem file from the Cisco DNA Center on the USB and upload it to the WLC 3504.
Refer to the exhibit.R4 is experiencing a packet drop when trying to reach 172.16.2.7 behind R2. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Insert a /24 floating static route on R2 toward R3 with metric 254. B. Disable auto summarization on R2. C. Insert a /16 floating static route on R2 toward R3 with metric 254. D. Enable auto summarization on all three routers R1, R2, and R3.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6:
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP SLA is configured to use the backup default route when the primary is down, but it is not working as desired. Which command fixes the issue?
A. R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.2.2.2.2 10 track 1 B. R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.2.2.2.2 C. R1(config)#ip sla track 1 D. R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.1.1.1.1 track 1
Correct Answer: D
Note: By default Static Router AD value-1 hence IP route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0. 1.1.1.1 track 1 means AD-1 which must be less than of backup route AD. Define the backup route to use when the tracked object is unavailable. !— The administrative distance of the backup route must be greater than !— the administrative distance of the tracked route. !— If the primary gateway is unreachable, that route is removed !— and the backup route is installed in the routing table !— instead of the tracked route. Reference:
A network engineer needs to verify IP SLA operations on an interface that shows an indication of excessive traffic. Which command should the engineer use to complete this action?
A. show frequency B. show track C. show reachability D. show threshold
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8:
Which attribute eliminates LFAs that belong to protected paths in situations where links in a network are connected through a common fiber?
A. Shared Risk Link Group (SRLG)-disjoint B. linecard-disjoint C. lowest-repair-path-metric D. interface-disjoint
Correct Answer: A
LFA Tie-Breaking Rules When there are multiple candidate LFAs for a given primary path, EIGRP uses a tie-breaking rule to select one LFA per primary path per prefix. A tie-breaking rule considers LFAs that satisfy certain conditions or have certain attributes. EIGRP uses the following four attributes to implement tie-breaking rules: – Interface-disjoint—Eliminates LFAs that share the outgoing interface with the protected path. – Linecard-disjoint—Eliminates LFAs that share the line card with the protected path. – Lowest-repair-path-metric—Eliminates LFAs whose metric to the protected prefix is high. Multiple LFAs with the same lowest path metric may remain in the routing table after this tie-breaker is applied. – Shared Risk Link Group (SRLG)-disjoint—Eliminates LFAs that belong to any of the protected path SRLGs. SRLGs refer to situations where links in a network share a common fiber (or a common physical attribute). If one link fails, other links in the group may also fail. Therefore, links in a group share risks.
Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP client is unable to receive an IP address from the DHCP server. RouterB is configured as follows:
Which command is required on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of RouterB to resolve this issue?
A. RouterB(config-if)#lp helper-address 172.31.1.1 B. RouterBiconfig-ififclp helper-address 255.255 255 255 C. RouterB(config-if)#lp helper-address 172.16.1.1 D. RouterB(config-if)#lp helper-address 172.16.1.2
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10:
DRAG DROP Drag and Drop the IPv6 First-Hop Security features from the left onto the definitions on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
+ Block reply and advertisement messages from unauthorized DHCP servers and relay agents: IPv6 DHCPv6 Guard + Create a binding table that is based on NS and NA messages: IPv6 ND Inspection + Filter inbound traffic on Layer 2 switch port that are not in the IPv6 binding table: IPv6 Source Guard + Block a malicious host and permit the router from a legitimate route: IPv6 RA Guard + Create IPv6 neighbors connected to the device from information sources such as NDP snooping: IPv6 Binding Table
QUESTION 11:
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is using the DNA Assurance Dashboard panel to troubleshoot an OSPF adjacency that failed between Edge_NYC Interface GigabitEthernet1/3 with Neighbor Edge_SNJ. The administrator observes that the neighborship is stuck in an extracted state. How does the administrator fix this issue?
A. Configure to match the OSPF interface network types on both routers. B. Configure to match the OSPF interface speed and duplex settings on both routers. C. Configure to match the OSPF interface MTU settings on both routers. D. Configure to match the OSPF interface unique IP address and subnet mask on both routers.
After two OSPF neighboring routers establish bi-directional communication and complete DR/BDR election (on multi-access networks), the routers transition to the exstart state. In this state, the neighboring routers establish a master/slave relationship and determine the initial database descriptor (DBD) sequence number to use while exchanging DBD packets. Neighbors Stuck in Exstart/Exchange State The problem occurs most frequently when attempting to run OSPF between a Cisco router and another vendor\’s router. The problem occurs when the maximum transmission unit (MTU) settings for neighboring router interfaces don\’t match. If the router with the higher MTU sends a packet larger than the MTU set on the neighboring router, the neighboring router ignores the packet.
QUESTION 12:
What are the two functions of LDP? (Choose two.)
A. It advertises labels per Forwarding Equivalence Class. B. It uses Forwarding Equivalence Class. C. It is defined in RFC 3038 and 3039. D. It requires MPLS Traffic Engineering. E. It must use Resource Reservation Protocol.
How is VPN routing information distributed in an MPLS network?
A. It is controlled through the use of RD. B. The top level of the customer data packet directs it to the correct CE device. C. It is established using VPN IPsec peers. D. It is controlled using VPN target communities.
