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Tips: Answers will be announced at the end of the article


An engineer is tasked with designing a dual BGP peering solution with a service provider. The design must meet these conditions:

1. The routers will not learn any prefix with a subnet mask greater than /24.

2. The routers will determine the routes to include in the routing table based on the length of the mask alone.

3. The routers will make this selection regardless of the service provider configuration.

Which solution should the engineer include in the design?

A. Use a route map and access list to block the desired networks, and apply the route map to BGP neighbors inbound.

B. Use a route map and prefix list to block the desired networks, and apply the route map to BGP neighbors outbound.

C. Use an IP prefix list to block the desired networks and apply the IP prefix list to BGP neighbors outbound.

D. Use an IP prefix list to block the desired networks and apply the IP prefix list to BGP neighbors inbound.


A company is using OSPF between its HQ location and a branch office. HQ is assigned area 0 and the branch office is assigned area 1. The company purchases a second branch office, but due to circuit delays to HQ, it decides to connect the new branch office to the creating branch office as a temporary measure. The new branch office is assigned area 2.

Which OSPF configuration enables all three locations to exchange routes?

A. The existing branch office must be configured as a stub area
B. A virtual link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ
C. A sham link must be configured between the new branch office and HQ
D. The new branch office must be configured as a stub area


How is end-to-end microsegmentation enforced in a Cisco SD-Access architecture?

A. VLANs are used to segment traffic at Layer 2.
B. 5-tuples and ACLs are used to permit or deny traffic.
C. SGTs and SGTACLs are used to control access to various resources.
D. VRFs are used to segment traffic at Layer 3.


Which two routing protocols allow for unequal cost load balancing? (Choose two.)

E. RIPng


Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the telemetry mode they apply to on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


How is redundancy achieved among Cisco vBond Orchestrators in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment?

A. The IP addresses of all Orchestrators are mapped to a single DNS name.
B. The closest Orchestrator to each Cisco WAN Edge router is selected.
C. Cisco WAN Edge routers are configured with all Orchestrators using their IP addresses and priority.
D. A single Cisco Orchestrator is deployed in each network.


Refer to the exhibit. AS65533 and AS65530 are announcing a partial Internet routing table as well as their IP subnets.

An architect must create a design that ensures AS64512 does not become a transit AS. Which filtering solution must the architect choose?

A. no-advertise
B. next-hop
C. no-export
D. maximum-prefix


Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must design an automatic failover solution. The solution should allow HSRP to detect a WAN 1 failure and initiate an automatic failover, making router R2 the active HSRP router. Which two solutions should the engineer choose? (Choose two.)

A. Implement Enhanced Object Tracking on roster R1
B. use a floating static route
C. Implement IP SLA on router R1
D. Implement PBR on router R1
E. use IP source routing


Which two functions does the control plane node provide in a Cisco SD-Access architecture? (Choose two.)

A. LISP proxy ETR
B. host tracking database
C. policy mapping
D. map server
E. endpoint registration


How is sub-second failure of a transport link detected in a Cisco SD-WAN network?

A. Hellos are sent between the WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller.
B. BFD runs on the IPsec tunnels between WAN Edge routers.
C. BGP is used between WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller.
D. Link state change messages are sent between vSmart controllers.


Refer to the exhibit. The distribution switches serve as the layer 3 boundary. HSRP preemption is enabled. When the primary switch comes back after a failure, traffic is initially dropped. Which solution must be implemented to improve the design?

A. split-horizon
B. summarization
C. down bit
D. route tags


Refer to the exhibit. An architect must design an IP addressing scheme for a multisite network connected via a WAN transit. The campus site must accommodate 12,000 devices and the branch sites must accommodate 1,000 devices.

Which address scheme optimizes network device resources, contains convergence events to the different blocks of the network, and ensures future growth of the network?

A. Campus: Branch1: Branch2:
B. Campus: Branchi: Branch2:
C. Campus: Branch1: Branch2:
D. Campus: Branch1: Branch2:


A customer with an IPv4 only network topology wants to enable IPv6 connectivity while preserving the IPv4 topology services. The customer plans to migrate IPv4 services to the IPv6 topology, then decommission the IPv4 topology.

Which topology supports these requirements?

A. dual stack
C. 6to4
D. NAT64

Published answer:


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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 700-755
Exam Name: Cisco Small Business Technical Overview
Certification: Express Specialization – SMB Track
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese
Price: $300 USD
Number of Questions: 45 – 55
700-755 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/700-755.html (Total Questions: 50 Q&A)

Cisco 700-755 exam questions online practice test:

Tips: Verify the answer at the end of the article

Question 1:

Which Cisco Catalyst 9100 AP feature adds capacity by automatically changing the access points from 2.4 and 5GHz to Dual 5GHz?



C. CleanAir


Question 2:

When enabled which two features will help extend the retention capacity of the Meraki MV smart cameras? (Choose two)

A. Direct stream-based retention

B. Schedule-based retention

C. Hybrid archives

D. Cloud archives

E. Motion-based retention

Question 3:

In the event an entire site went down: which activity does Cisco\’s HyperFlex Stretched Cluster still enable a user to do?

A. continue VM replication synchronously

B. access the entire cluster

C. access only the remaining node or nodes in the cluster

D. recover lost data

Question 4:

What separates Cisco Meraki from its competitors?

A. kit obtained via promotional seminars can be added and integrated into the POC kit to enhance the service offering

B. the cloud architecture and product experience itself

C. testing the gear live by attending marketing webinars

D. dedicated team and the Cisco Meraki sales specialist attend every whiteboarding session to better illustrate complex topics

Question 5:

Which two features are included in every licensed MX security appliance as part of its unified threat management solution? (Choose two )

A. Stateless L3/L7 firewalls

B. OA (change of authorization)


D. Umbrella integration (DNS firewall)

E. Auto VPN (site-to-site VPN)

Question 6:

Which two capabilities are included in the System Manager\’s robust enterprise mobility management (EMM) feature set? (Choose two )

A. Rapid provisioning (enrollment)

B. Emergency broadcast (alerts)

C. Remote troubleshooting

D. RFID tag tracking

E. OS version control

Question 7:

What is one of the mam functionalities of the Meraki Go mobile app?

A. used to manage and renew Meraki Go licenses

B. for opening support tickets with the Meraki Go support team

C. to assist with the fast onboarding of Meraki Go products

D. to help reduce the power consumption of network devices

Question 8:

Using Cisco Security, what is the remediation time for a previously unknown threat?

A. under 10 minutes

B. under 15 minutes

C. under 5 minutes

D. under 8 minutes

E. under 30 minutes

Question 9:

By how much can Cisco UCS reduce provisioning time?

A. 6 hours to 1 minute

B. 12 weeks to 10 minutes

C. 1 month to 1 hour

D. 6 months to 2 weeks

E. 2 weeks to 6 hours

Question 10:

What is a function of Cisco Intersight?

A. Cisco Intersight provides Platform-as-a-Service management

B. Cisco Intersight includes a RESTful API to provide full programmability

C. Cisco Intersight is a great start for core management and simplification

D. Cisco Intersight automates many tasks including RBAC and reporting of cases to TAC

Question 11:

Which two products are considered a part of the Cisco Meraki full stack? (Choose two.)

A. MX security appliances

B. MR wireless access points

C. Catalyst switches

D. UCS servers

E. Aironet wireless access points

Question 12:

Which layout can Cisco Webex flexible video conference support?

A. active speaker video view where the participant talking will have the most prominent view on the screen

B. active-active video view where two participants can engage on-screen at the same time

C. presenter video view where the meeting host shares their desktop on the screen

D. grid view where the active speaker is visible and other participants show on the bottom strip

Question 13:

Which two Cisco Small Business series switches are smart-managed? (Choose two.)

A. 220

B. 250

C. 550X

D. 350X

E. 110

Question 14:

Which three product families comprise the Meraki Go network stack? (Choose three )

A. Access points

B. Security content filters

C. Network routers

D. Security gateway and firewall

E. Network switches

Question 15:

What is the built-in technology on the MR platform that utilizes one-way beacon advertising to interact with applications?

A. Adaptive Radio Management

B. BLE (Bluetooth Low Energy)

C. BeamFlex

D. Radio Resource Management


Verify answer:


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A Cisco 8540 WLC manages Cisco Aironet 4800 Series APs and sends AoA data to a Cisco CMX 3375 Appliance for Hyperlocation. The load from the WLC is distributed to another virtual CMX server using CMX grouping. The virtual CMX server shows location RSSI data and not Hyperiocation. No AOA metrics are shown on the metrics page of the CMX virtual appliance under System > Metrics > Location Metrics.

How must the network administrator RESOLVE THIS ISSUE?

A. Allow port 2003 for AoA packets to flow through between the CMX appliances.
B. Enable Wireless > Access Points > Global configuration > Enable Hyperlocation on the WLC.
C. Use one Hyperlocation-enabled WL.C and CMX for AoA data
D. Enable the HALO module on the CMX appliance for the data collection

Correct Answer: C


Where is Cisco Hyperlocation enabled on a Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller web interface?

A. Policy Profile
B. AP Join Profile
C. Flex Profile
D. RF Profile

Correct Answer: B


An engineer wants to upgrade the APs in a Cisco FlexConnect group. To accomplish this upgrade, the FlexConnect AP Upgrade setting will be used One AP of each model with the lowest MAC address in the group must receive the upgrade directly from the controller.

Which action accomplishes this direct upgrade?

A. Reboot all APs before the upgrade.
B. Remove the APs from the group
C. Do not set any master APs. 9 0
D. Allocate the master APs to different groups

Correct Answer: D


The Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold is currently set to -50 dBm. After reviewing the wireless user location, discrepancies have been noticed. To improve the Cisco Hyperlocation accuracy, an engineer attempts to change the detection threshold to -100 dBm However, the Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller does not allow this change to be applied.

What actions should be taken to resolve this issue?

A. Place the APs to monitor the mode shutdown of the radios, and then change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold

B. Shut down all radios on the controller, change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection range, and enable the radios again.

C. Disable Cisco Hyperlocation. change the Cisco Hyperlocation detection threshold and then enable it

D. Create a new profile on Cisco CMX with the new Cisco Hyperlocation detection range, and apply it to the WL AN.

Correct Answer: C


A network engineer has been hired to perform a new MSE implementation on an existing network. The MSE must be installed in a different network than the Cisco WLC.

Which configuration allows the devices to communicate over NMSP?

A. Allow UDP/16113portonthe central switch.
B. Allow TCP/16666 port on the router.
C. Allow TCP/16113 port on the firewall.
D. Allow UDP/16666 port on the VPN router.

Correct Answer: C


Which devices can be tracked with the Cisco Context-Aware Services?

A. wired and wireless devices
B. wireless devices
C. wired devices
D. Cisco certified wireless devices

Correct Answer: A


A network engineer needs to configure multicast in the network. The implementation will use multiple multicast groups and PIM routers.

Which address provides automatic discovery of the best RP for each multicast group?


Correct Answer: D


A Cisco CMX 3375 appliance on the 10.6.1 version code counts duplicate client entries, which creates wrong location analytics. The issue is primarily from iOS clients with the private MAC address feature enabled. Enabling this feature requires an upgrade of the Cisco CMX 3375 appliance in a high availability pair to version 10.6.3. SCP transfers the Cisco CMX image, but the upgrade script run fails.

Which configuration change resolves this issue?

A. Upgrade the high availability pair to version 10.6.2 image first and then upgrade to version 10.6.3.

B. Save configuration and use the upgrade script to upgrade the high availability pair without breaking the high availability.

C. Break the high availability using the cmxha config disable command and upgrade the primary and secondary individuality.

D. Run root patch to first upgrade to version 10.6.2 and then migrate to version 10.6.3.

Correct Answer: C


An engineer has implemented 802.1x authentication on the wireless network utilizing the internal database of a RADIUS server. Some clients reported that they are unable to connect. After troubleshooting, it is found that PEAP authentication is failing. A debug showed the server is sending an Access-Reject message.

Which action must be taken to resolve authentication?

A. Use the user password that is configured on the server.
B. Disable the server certificate to be validated on the client.
C. Update the client certificate to match the user account.
D. Replace the client certificates from the CA with the server certificate.

Correct Answer: B


An engineer configured a Cisco AireOS controller with two TACACS+ servers. The engineer notices that when the primary TACACS+ server fails, the WLC starts using the secondary server as expected, but the WLC does not use the primary server again until the secondary server fails or the controller is rebooted.

Which cause of this issue is true?

A. Fallback is enabled
B. Fallback is disabled
C. DNS query is disabled
D. DNS query is enabled

Correct Answer: B


When configuring a Cisco WLC, which CLI command adds a VLAN with a VLAN ID of 30 to a FlexConnect group named BranchA-FCG?

A. config flexconnect BranchA-FCG vlan 30 add
B. config flexconnect group BranchA-FCG vlan add 30
C. config flexconnect group BranchA-FCG vlan 30 add
D. config flexconnect BranchA-FCG vlan add 30

Correct Answer: B


Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator deploys the DHCP profiler service in two ISE servers: and All BYOD devices connecting to WLAN on VLAN63 have been incorrectly profiled and are assigned as unknown profiled endpoints.

Which action efficiently rectifies the issue according to Cisco recommendations?

A. Nothing needed to be added to the Cisco WLC or VLAN interface. The ISE configuration must be fixed.

B. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC.

C. Disable DHCP proxy on the Cisco WLC and run the IP helper-address command under the VLAN interface to point to DHCP and the two ISE servers.

D. Keep DHCP proxy enabled on the Cisco WLC and define a helper-address under the VLAN interface to point to the two ISE servers.

Correct Answer: C


The marketing department creates a promotion video for the branch store. Only interested hosts must receive the video over wireless multicast.

What allows this feature?


Correct Answer: C


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Updated 2022.6


Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a configuration that prevents R3from receiving the LSA about Which configuration set achieves this goal? [Missing the exhibit]

A. On R3 ip access-list standard R4_L0 deny host permit any
router ospf 200
distribute-list R4_L0 in

B. On R3 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permit le 32
router ospf 200
area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA 1 in

C. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny ip prefix-list INTO-AREA 1 seq 10 permit le 32
router ospf 200
area 1 filter-list prefix IN TO-AREA1 in

D. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permit le 32
router ospf 200
area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA1 out


Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

A. sniffer
B. monitor
C. bridge
D. local


Refer to the exhibit.

The EtherChannel between SW2 and SW3 is not operational which action resolves this issue?

A. Configure the channel-group mode on SW2 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to on.
B. Configure the channel-group mode on SW3 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to active.
C. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/0 to the trunk.
D. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/1 to access.


Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0. Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?

A. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point

B. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast

C. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out

D. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf priority 1


How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?

A. EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF
B. EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors
C. EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost.
D. EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF


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2022 350-401 [Q1]:

Which statements are used for error handling in Python?

A. try/catch
B. try/except
C. block/rescue
D. catch/release

Correct Answer: B

The words “try” and “except” are Python keywords and are used to catch exceptions.
For example:
print 1/0
except ZeroDivisionError:
print \’ Error! We cannot divide by zero!!!\’

2022 350-401 [Q2]:

What is the function of a fabric border node in a Cisco SD-Access environment?

A. To collect traffic flow information toward external networks
B. To connect the Cisco SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks
C. To attach and register clients to the fabric
D. To handle an ordered list of IP addresses and locations for endpoints in the fabric.

Correct Answer: B

2022 350-401 [Q3]:

What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in the data center environment? (Choose two.)

A. Increased security
B. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements
C. reduced IP and MAC address requirements

D. speedy deployment
E. smaller Layer 2 domain

Correct Answer: BD

Server virtualization and the use of virtual machines are profoundly changing data center dynamics. Most organizations are struggling with the cost and complexity of hosting multiple physical servers in their data centers. The expansion of the data center, a result of both scale-out server architectures and traditional “one application, one server” sprawl, has created problems in housing, powering, and cooling large numbers of underutilized servers. In addition, IT organizations continue to deal with the traditional cost and operational challenges of matching server resources to organizational needs that seem fickle and ever-changing. Virtual machines can significantly mitigate many of these challenges by enabling multiple application and operating system environments to be hosted on a single physical server while
maintaining complete isolation between the guest operating systems and their respective applications. Hence, server virtualization facilitates server consolidation by enabling organizations to exchange a number of underutilized servers for a single highly utilized server running multiple virtual machines. By consolidating multiple physical servers, organizations can gain several benefits:
Underutilized servers can be retired or redeployed.
Rack space can be reclaimed.
Power and cooling loads can be reduced.
New virtual servers can be rapidly deployed.
CapEx (higher utilization means fewer servers need to be purchased) and OpEx (few servers means a simpler environment and lower maintenance costs) can be reduced.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-centervirtualization/net_implementation_white_paper0900aecd806a9c05.html

2022 350-401 [Q4]:

Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?

A. ICMP echo
B. UDP jitter
C. CMP jitter
D. TCP connect

Correct Answer: B

Cisco IOS IP SLA Responder is a Cisco IOS Software component whose functionality is to respond to Cisco IOS IP SLA request packets. The IP SLA source sends control packets before the operation starts to establish a connection to the responder. Once the control packet is acknowledged, test packets are sent to the responder. The responder inserts a time-stamp when it receives a packet and factors out the destination processing time and adds timestamps to the sent packets. This feature allows the calculation of unidirectional packet loss, latency, and jitter measurements with the kind of accuracy that is not possible with ping or another dedicated probe testing.
The IP SLAs responder is a component embedded in the destination Cisco device that allows the system to anticipate and respond to IP SLAs request packets. The responder provides accurate measurements without the need for dedicated probes.
UDP Jitter measures the delay, delay variation(jitter), corruption, and misordering packet loss by generating periodic UDP traffic. This operation always requires an IP SLA responder.

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2017/pdf/BRKNMS-3043.pdf https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/46sg/configuration/guide/Wrapper-46SG/swipsla.pdf

2022 350-401 [Q5]:

Which statement about a fabric access point is true?

A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node.
B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node.
C. It is in local mode and must connect directly to the fabric edge switch.
D. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.

Correct Answer: C

Fabric mode APs continue to support the same wireless media services that traditional APs support; apply AVC, quality of service (QoS), and other wireless policies; and establish the CAPWAP control plane to the fabric WLC. Fabric APs join as local-mode APs and must be directly connected to the fabric edge node switch to enable fabric registration events, including RLOC assignment via the fabric WLC. The fabric edge nodes use CDP to recognize APs as special wired hosts, applying special port configurations and assigning the APs to a unique overlay network within a common EID space across a fabric. The assignment allows management simplification by using a single subnet to cover the AP infrastructure at a fabric site.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/sda-sdg-2019oct.html

2022 350-401 [Q6]:

Which network devices secure API platforms?

A. next-generation intrusion detection systems
B. Layer 3 transit network devices
C. content switches
D. web application firewalls

Correct Answer: A

2022 350-401 [Q7]:

Which solution do laaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network?


Correct Answer: C

2022 350-401 [Q8]:

What is the function of the fabric control plane node In a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

A. It is responsible for policy application and network segmentation in the fabric.
B. It performs traffic encapsulation and security profiles enforcement in the fabric.
C. It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric.
D. It provides Integration with legacy nonfabric-enabled environments.

Correct Answer: C

Fabric control plane node (C): One or more network elements that implement the LISP Map-Server (MS) and Map-Resolver (MR) functionality. The control plane node`s host tracking database keeps track of all endpoints in a fabric site and associates the endpoints to fabric nodes in what is known as an EID-to- RLOC binding in LISP.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/cisco-sda-macro-segmentation-deploy-guide.html

2022 350-401 [Q9]:

Which protocol is used to encrypt control plane traffic between SD-WAN controllers and SDWAN endpoints?

B. IPsec

Correct Answer: A

2022 350-401 [Q10]:

Which two statements about IP SLA are true? (Choose two)

A. It uses NetFlow for passive traffic monitoring
B. It can measure MOS
C. The IP SLA responder is a component in the source Cisco device
D. It is Layer 2 transport-independent correct
E. It uses active traffic monitoring correct
F. SNMP access is not supported

Correct Answer: DE

IP SLAs allows Cisco customers to analyze IP service levels for IP applications and services, increase productivity, lower operational costs, and reduce the frequency of network outages. IP SLAs use active traffic monitoring the generation of traffic in a continuous, reliable, and predictable manner or measuring network performance. Being Layer-2 transport-independent, IP SLAs can be configured end-to-end over disparate networks to best reflect the metrics that an end-user is likely to experience. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipsla/configuration/15-mt/sla-15- mt-book/ sla_overview.html

2022 350-401 [Q11]:

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure deployment models on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

2022 350-401 [Q12]:

What is used to measure the total output energy of a Wi-Fi device?

A. dBi
C. mW

D. dBm

Correct Answer: C

Output power is measured in mW (milliwatts). answer \’dBi\’ milliwatt is equal to one thousandth (10-3) of a watt.

2022 350-401 [Q13]:

How does the RIB differ from the FIB?

A. The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.

B. The FIB includes many routes and a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination.

C. The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route

D. The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.

Correct Answer: A


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[Updated 2022.6]300-415 dumps: 10 minutes of study to help you pass the 90-minute exam

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[Updated 2022.6] 300-415 Dumps exam questions


An administrator must configure an ACL for traffic coming in from the service-side VPN on a specific WAN device with circuit ID 391897770. Which policy must be used to configure this ACL?

A. local data policy
B. central data policy
C. app-aware policy
D. central control policy

Correct Answer: A




A bank is looking for improved customer experience for applications and reduced overhead related to compliance and security. Which key feature or features of the Cisco SD-WAN solution will help the bank to achieve its goals?

A. integration with PaaS providers to offer the best possible application experience

B. QoS includes application prioritization and meeting critical applications SLA for selecting the optimal path.

C. implementation of a modem age core banking system

D. implementation of BGP across the enterprise routing for selecting the optimal path

Correct Answer: B




Which third-party Enterprise CA server must be used for a cloud-based vSmart controller?

A. RootCert
B. VeriSign
C. Microsoft

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.nterone.com/articles/cisco-sdwan-viptela-everything-you-wanted-to-know-about-certificates-deployment-but-were-afraid-to-ask



Which VPN connects the transport-side WAN Edge interface to the underlay/WAN network?

A. VPN 1
B. VPN 511
C. VPN 0
D. VPN 512

Correct Answer: C



What is a default protocol for a control plane connection?

C. IPsec

Correct Answer: D

[Updated 2022.6]: Continue to learn more about Cisco 300-415 exam questions to help you prepare for the 300-415 ENSDWI Exam

Next, take the 300-415 online test:

Answers are announced at the end of the article


Which component of the Cisco SD-WAN secure extensible network provides a single pane of glass approach to network monitoring and configuration?
B. vSmart
C. vManage
D. vBond


300-415 q2

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is getting a CTORGNMMIS error on a controller connection. Which action resolves this issue?

A. Configure a valid certificate on vSMART.
B. Configure a valid organization name.
C. Configure a valid serial number on the WAN Edge.
D. Configure a valid product ID.

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-documents/sd-wan-routers-troubleshoot-control-connections/tap/3813237


Which attributes are configured to uniquely identify and represent a TLOC route?

A. system IP address, link color, and encapsulation
B. origin, originator, and preference
C. site ID, tag, and VPN
D. firewall, IPS, and application optimization

TLOC routes are the logical tunnel termination points on the vEdge routers that connect into a transport network. A TLOC route is uniquely identified and represented by a three-tuple, consisting of system IP address, link color, and encapsulation (Generic Routing Encapsulation [GRE] or IPSec). In addition to system IP address, color, and encapsulation, TLOC routes also carry attributes such as TLOC private and public IP addresses, carrier, preference, site ID, tag, and weight. For a TLOC to be considered in an active state on a particular vEdge, an active BFD session must be associated with that vEdge TLOC. https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/CVD-SD-WANDesign-2018OCT.pdf


Refer to the exhibit.

300-415 q4

Which command allows traffic through the IPsec tunnel configured in VPN 0?

A. service netsvc1 vpn1
B. service netsvc1 address
C. service FW address
D. service local

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/vedge-20-x/policies-book/service/chaining.html


Refer to the exhibit.

300-415 q5

Which configuration configures IPsec tunnels in active and standby?

300-415 q5-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D


The network administrator is configuring a QoS scheduling policy on traffic received from transport side tunnels on WAN Edge 5000 routers at location 406141498 Which command must be configured on these devices?

A. cloud-qos
B. service qos
C. cloud-mis qos
D. mis qos


Which feature builds transport redundancy by using the cross link between two redundant WAN Edge routers?

B. zero-touch provisioning
C. quality of service
D. TLOC extension


Which two products that perform lifecycle management for virtual instances are supported by WAN Edge cloud routers? (Choose two.)

A. OpenStack
C. VMware vCenter
D. Azure
E. IBM Cloud


300-415 q8


Drag and drop the vManage policy configuration procedures from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Select and Place:

300-415 q9

Correct Answer:

300-415 q9-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/vedge/policies-book/datapolicies.html


Refer to the exhibit.

300-415 q10

The Cisco SD-WAN network is configured with a default full-mesh topology. Islamabad HQ and Islamabad WAN Edges must be used as the hub sites. Hub sites MPLS TLOC must be preferred when forwarding FTP traffic based on a configured SLA class list. Which policy configuration does the network engineer use to call the SLA class and set the preferred color to MPLS?

A. Centralized Policy, Traffic Policy
B. Centralized Policy, Topology
C. Localized Policy, Forwarding Class
D. Localized Policy, Route Policy

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/ios-xe-17/policies-bookxe/centralized-policy.html#Cisco_Concept.dita_d31f22cb-f54f-41df-966a-0ae1ca3c398a


What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode of power allocation when an access point is connected o a PoE switch port?

A. It detects the device is a powered device
B. All four pairs of the cable are used
C. Power policing is enabled at the same time
D. The default level is used for the access point

300-415 q11



Which configuration step is taken on vManage after WAN Edge list is uploaded to support the on-boarding process before the device comes online?

A. Verify the device certificate
B. Enable the ZTP process
C. Set the device as valid
D. Send the list to controllers

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/sd-wan-wan-edge-onboarding-deployguide-2020jan.pdf

Verify the answer:


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To earn Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification | Exam Materials

To earn the Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification, you must pass two exams, Core exam 350-201 CBRCOR and Concentration exam 300-215 CBRFIR:

Each of these exams will lead to a separate Specialist certification, although both exams must be passed to earn the Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification.

How do I earn the Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification?

Use the exam materials to help you successfully pass the Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification exam:

350-201 CBRCOR exam dumps material download: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-201.html

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The real exam dumps include both PDF and VCE study tools, which you can see in the Lead4Pass exam dumps page, to help you achieve easy exam success.

Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification exam details:

Concentration exam 300-215 CBRFIR:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-215
Exam Name: Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBRFIR)
Certification: Cisco Certified CyberOps Specialist – CyberOps Forensic Analysis and Incident Response
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $300 USD

Core exam 350-201 CBRCOR:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 350-201
Exam Name: Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies (CBRCOR)
Certification: Cisco Certified CyberOps Specialist – CyberOps Core
Duration: 120 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $400 USD

Free to share some 350-201 CBRCOR online exam practice:


Refer to the exhibit. Rapid Threat Containment using Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) and ISE detects the threat of malware-infected 802.1x authenticated endpoints and places that endpoint into a quarantine VLAN using Adaptive Network Control policy.

Which method was used to signal ISE to quarantine the endpoints?

B. syslog
D. pxGrid

Correct Answer: C


An engineer is developing an application that requires frequent updates to close feedback loops and enable teams to quickly apply patches. The team wants their code updates to get to market as often as possible.

Which software development approach should be used to accomplish these goals?

A. continuous delivery
B. continuous integration
C. continuous deployment
D. continuous monitoring

Correct Answer: A


Refer to the exhibit. How must these advisories be prioritized for handling?

A. The highest priority for handling depends on the type of institution deploying the devices
B. Vulnerability #2 is the highest priority for every type of institution
C. Vulnerability #1 and vulnerability #2 have the same priority
D. Vulnerability #1 is the highest priority for every type of institution

Correct Answer: D


Refer to the exhibit. Where is the MIME type that should be followed indicated?

A. x-test-debug
B. strict-transport-security
C. x-xss-protection
D. x-content-type-options

Correct Answer: A


A security architect is working in a processing center and must implement a DLP solution to detect and prevent any type of copy and paste attempts of sensitive data within unapproved applications and removable devices.

Which technical architecture must be used?

A. DLP for data in motion
B. DLP for removable data
C. DLP for data in use
D. DLP for data at rest

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.endpointprotector.com/blog/what-is-data-loss-prevention-dlp/


Drag and drop the phases to evaluate the security posture of an asset from the left onto the activity that happens during the phases on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


An organization lost connectivity to critical servers, and users cannot access business applications and internal websites. An engineer checks the network devices to investigate the outage and determines that all devices are functioning. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to continue investigating this issue. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


What is a principle of Infrastructure as Code?

A. System maintenance is delegated to software systems
B. Comprehensive initial designs support robust systems
C. Scripts and manual configurations work together to ensure repeatable routines
D. System downtime is grouped and scheduled across the infrastructure

Correct Answer: B


An employee abused PowerShell commands and script interpreters, which lead to an indicator of compromise (IOC) trigger. The IOC event shows that a known malicious file has been executed, and there is an increased likelihood of a breach.

Which indicator generated this IOC event?

A. ExecutedMalware.ioc
B. Crossrider.ioc
C. ConnectToSuspiciousDomain.ioc
D. W32 AccesschkUtility.ioc

Correct Answer: D


Refer to the exhibit. Which indicator of compromise is represented by this STIX?

A. website redirecting traffic to ransomware server
B. website hosting malware to download files
C. web server vulnerability exploited by malware
D. cross-site scripting vulnerability to backdoor server

Correct Answer: C


A security expert is investigating a breach that resulted in a $32 million loss from customer accounts. Hackers were able to steal API keys and two-factor codes due to a vulnerability that was introduced in a new code a few weeks before the attack.

Which step was missed that would have prevented this breach?

A. use of the Nmap tool to identify the vulnerability when the new code was deployed
B. implementation of a firewall and intrusion detection system
C. implementation of an endpoint protection system
D. use of SecDevOps to detect the vulnerability during development

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://securityintelligence.com/how-to-prioritize-security-vulnerabilities-in-secdevops/


Which command does an engineer use to set read/write/execute access on a folder for everyone who reaches the resource?

A. chmod 666
B. chmod 774
C. chmod 775
D. chmod 777

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.pluralsight.com/blog/it-ops/linux-file-permissions


An analyst is alerted for a malicious file hash. After analysis, the analyst determined that an internal workstation is communicating over port 80 with an external server and that the file hash is associated with Duqu malware.

Which tactics, techniques, and procedures align with this analysis?

A. Command and Control, Application Layer Protocol, Duqu
B. Discovery, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
C. Lateral Movement, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
D. Discovery, System Network Configuration Discovery, Duqu

Correct Answer: A


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300-410 dumps update | Cisco 300-410 ENARSI Exam Materials

300-410 Dumps exam questions for the current latest and actual Cisco 300-410 ENARSI Exam Materials.

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ENARSI is the abbreviation of Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services exam name, you can check the specific information:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-410
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)
Certification: CCNP Enterprise
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese
Price: $300 USD

Rules for the CCNP Enterprise certification exam:

CCNP Enterprise certification exam

I think you should understand that the Cisco 300-410 ENARSI Exam is one of the centralized exams, come here to say it’s your choice. And to get CCNP Enterprise certification, you pass two exams: one that covers core enterprise technologies and one enterprise concentration exam of your choice.
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300-410 exam questions and answers based on the real core content of the Cisco 300-410 ENARSI Exam and verified by the test center:

  • Layer 3
  • VPN services
  • Infrastructure security
  • Infrastructure services
  • Infrastructure automation

Next, read a portion of the free 300-410 Dumps exam questions and answers online:


An engineer needs dynamic routing between two routers and is unable to establish OSPF adjacency. The output of the show ip ospf neighbor command shows that the neighbor state is EXSTART/EXCHANGE. Which action should be taken to resolve this issue?

A. match the passwords
B. match the hello timers
C. match the MTUs
D. match the network types

Correct Answer: C

The problem occurs most frequently when attempting to run OSPF between a Cisco router and another vendor\’s router. The problem occurs when the maximum transmission unit (MTU) settings for neighboring router interfaces don\’t match. If the router with the higher MTU sends a packet larger than the MTU set on the neighboring router, the neighboring router ignores the packet.


Refer to the exhibit. Users report that IP addresses cannot be acquired from the DHCP server. The DHCP server is configured as shown. About 300 total nonconcurrent users are using this DHCP server, but none of them are active for more than two hours per day. Which action fixes the issue within the current resources?

A. Modify the subnet mask to the network command in the DHCP pool
B. Configure the DHCP lease time to a smaller value
C. Configure the DHCP lease time to a bigger value
D. Add the network command to the DHCP pool

Correct Answer: B


You recently implemented SNMPv3 to increase the security of your network management system. A partial output of the show run command displays the following output that relates to SNMP.

snmp-server group NORMAL v3 noauth read NORMAL write NORMAL
Which of the following statements is true of this configuration?

A. it provides encryption, but it does not provide authentication
B. it provides neither authentication nor encryption
C. it provides authentication, but it does not provide encryption
D. it provides both authentication and encryption

Correct Answer: B

It provides neither authentication nor encryption. In SNMPv3 there are three combinations of security that can be used:

noAuthNoPriv- no authentication and no encryption noauth keyword in the configuration AuthNoPriv – messages are authenticated but not encrypted auth keyword in the configuration AuthPriv – messages are authenticated and encrypted priv keyword in the configuration In this case, the keyword noauth in the configuration indicates that no authentication and no encryption are provided. This makes the implementation no more secure than SNMPv1 or SNMPv2.

In SNMPv1 and SNMPv2, authentication is performed using a community string. When you implement SNMP using the noauth keyword, it does not use community strings for authentication. Instead it uses the configured user or group name (in this case NORMAL). Regardless, it does not provide either authentication or encryption.

Infrastructure Services

Configure and verify SNMP

SNMP Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Release 3SE (Catalyst 3850 Switches) > SNMPv3


Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is discovering a Cisco Catalyst 9300 and a Cisco WLC 3504 in Cisco DNA Center. The Catalyst 9300 is added successfully. However, the WLC is showing the error “uncontactable” when the administrator tries to add it to Cisco DNA Center.
Which action discovers WLC in Cisco DNA Center successfully?

A. Delete the WLC 3504 from Cisco DNA Center and add it to Cisco DNA Center again.
B. Add the WLC 3504 under the hierarchy of the Catalyst 9300 connected devices.
C. Copy the .cert file from the Cisco DNA Center on the USB and upload it to the WLC 3504.
D. Copy the .pem file from the Cisco DNA Center on the USB and upload it to the WLC 3504.

Correct Answer: D



Refer to the exhibit.R4 is experiencing a packet drop when trying to reach behind R2. Which action resolves the issue?

A. Insert a /24 floating static route on R2 toward R3 with metric 254.
B. Disable auto summarization on R2.
C. Insert a /16 floating static route on R2 toward R3 with metric 254.
D. Enable auto summarization on all three routers R1, R2, and R3.

Correct Answer: B


Refer to the exhibit.

An IP SLA is configured to use the backup default route when the primary is down, but it is not working as desired. Which command fixes the issue?

A. R1(config)# ip route 10 track 1
B. R1(config)# ip route
C. R1(config)#ip sla track 1
D. R1(config)# ip route track 1

Correct Answer: D

Note: By default Static Router AD value-1 hence IP route track 1 means AD-1 which must be less than of backup route AD.
Define the backup route to use when the tracked object is unavailable.
!— The administrative distance of the backup route must be greater than
!— the administrative distance of the tracked route.
!— If the primary gateway is unreachable, that route is removed
!— and the backup route is installed in the routing table !— instead of the tracked route. Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/ip-routing/200785-ISP-Failover-with-default-routes-using-I.html https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/asa-5500-x-series-next-generation-firewalls/118962-configure-asa-00.html


A network engineer needs to verify IP SLA operations on an interface that shows an indication of excessive traffic.
Which command should the engineer use to complete this action?

A. show frequency
B. show track
C. show reachability
D. show threshold

Correct Answer: B


Which attribute eliminates LFAs that belong to protected paths in situations where links in a network are connected through a common fiber?

A. Shared Risk Link Group (SRLG)-disjoint
B. linecard-disjoint
C. lowest-repair-path-metric
D. interface-disjoint

Correct Answer: A

LFA Tie-Breaking Rules
When there are multiple candidate LFAs for a given primary path, EIGRP uses a tie-breaking rule to select one LFA per
primary path per prefix. A tie-breaking rule considers LFAs that satisfy certain conditions or have certain attributes.
EIGRP uses the following four attributes to implement tie-breaking rules:

Interface-disjoint—Eliminates LFAs that share the outgoing interface with the protected path.

Linecard-disjoint—Eliminates LFAs that share the line card with the protected path.

Lowest-repair-path-metric—Eliminates LFAs whose metric to the protected prefix is high. Multiple LFAs with the same lowest path metric may remain in the routing table after this tie-breaker is applied.

Shared Risk Link Group (SRLG)-disjoint—Eliminates LFAs that belong to any of the protected path SRLGs. SRLGs refer to situations where links in a network share a common fiber (or a common physical attribute). If one link fails, other links in the group may also fail. Therefore, links in a group share risks.

Source: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_eigrp/configuration/xe-3s/asr1000/ire-xe-3s-asr1000/ire-ipfrr.html


Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP client is unable to receive an IP address from the DHCP server. RouterB is configured as follows:

Which command is required on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of RouterB to resolve this issue?

A. RouterB(config-if)#lp helper-address
B. RouterBiconfig-ififclp helper-address 255.255 255 255
C. RouterB(config-if)#lp helper-address
D. RouterB(config-if)#lp helper-address

Correct Answer: D


Drag and Drop the IPv6 First-Hop Security features from the left onto the definitions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Block reply and advertisement messages from unauthorized DHCP servers and relay agents: IPv6 DHCPv6 Guard
Create a binding table that is based on NS and NA messages: IPv6 ND Inspection
Filter inbound traffic on Layer 2 switch port that are not in the IPv6 binding table: IPv6 Source Guard
Block a malicious host and permit the router from a legitimate route: IPv6 RA Guard
Create IPv6 neighbors connected to the device from information sources such as NDP snooping: IPv6 Binding Table


Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is using the DNA Assurance Dashboard panel to troubleshoot an OSPF adjacency that failed between Edge_NYC Interface GigabitEthernet1/3 with Neighbor Edge_SNJ. The administrator observes that the neighborship is stuck in an extracted state.
How does the administrator fix this issue?

A. Configure to match the OSPF interface network types on both routers.
B. Configure to match the OSPF interface speed and duplex settings on both routers.
C. Configure to match the OSPF interface MTU settings on both routers.
D. Configure to match the OSPF interface unique IP address and subnet mask on both routers.

Correct Answer: C


After two OSPF neighboring routers establish bi-directional communication and complete DR/BDR election (on multi-access networks), the routers transition to the exstart state. In this state, the neighboring routers establish a master/slave relationship and determine the initial database descriptor (DBD) sequence number to use while exchanging DBD packets. Neighbors Stuck in Exstart/Exchange State The problem occurs most frequently when attempting to run OSPF between a Cisco router and another vendor\’s router. The problem occurs when the maximum transmission unit (MTU) settings for neighboring router interfaces don\’t match. If the router with the higher MTU sends a packet larger than the MTU set on the neighboring router, the neighboring router ignores the packet.


What are the two functions of LDP? (Choose two.)

A. It advertises labels per Forwarding Equivalence Class.
B. It uses Forwarding Equivalence Class.
C. It is defined in RFC 3038 and 3039.
D. It requires MPLS Traffic Engineering.
E. It must use Resource Reservation Protocol.

Correct Answer: AB



How is VPN routing information distributed in an MPLS network?

A. It is controlled through the use of RD.
B. The top level of the customer data packet directs it to the correct CE device.
C. It is established using VPN IPsec peers.
D. It is controlled using VPN target communities.

Correct Answer: D



Free 300-410 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Online Download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1Hmd2m8IlFiln0lDicik9brJDd0T1caJr/view?usp=sharing

View 548 exam questions and answers: Click Here.

Cisco Latest Network System and practice test – 2022 Update
cisco updated 2021
cisco change 2020

Summary of the Main Changes

  • The changes come into effect on February 24th 2020
  • All certification tracks and levels are affected
  • The main certification levels remain the same – CCNA, CCNP and CCIE
  • The different tracks are being removed at the CCNA level
  • The tracks are being consolidated at the CCNP and CCIE level
  • The entry-level CCENT certification is being retired
  • The recertification period for all certifications will be 3 years

CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate

Current CCNA Tracks before February 24th:

  • CCNA Routing and Switching
  • CCNA Cloud
  • CCNA Collaboration
  • CCNA Cyber Ops
  • CCNA Data Center
  • CCNA Industrial
  • CCNA Security
  • CCNA Service Provider
  • CCNA Wireless
  • CCDA Design

New CCNA Tracks from February 24th:

  • CCNA
  • Cisco Certified DevNet Associate (new)

The 10 current CCNA tracks will no longer be available from 24th February 2020. Way back in the day when Cisco was originally a routing and switching company, they released the CCNA certification which was the equivalent of today’s CCNA Routing and Switching. Whenever somebody mentions the ‘CCNA’ in general, they’re talking about the CCNA R&S.

Cisco went on to expand into other technology areas such as Security with devices like the PIX firewall (now the ASA) and Collaboration with products such as Cisco CallManager (now the Cisco Unified Communications Manager). The certification evolved to include the new technologies, with CCNA Security, CCNA Collaboration, etc. tracks being added, eventually culminating in the 10 tracks available now.

Having 10 different CCNA tracks can be confusing both for new network engineers wishing to get certified and also for employers. Another concern is that engineers working on real-world Cisco networks are typically expected to have skills across multiple tracks, and the current certification program means they have to either study all the different tracks which would be very time consuming and expensive, or pick up knowledge on the job without a structured study showing the right way to do things.

Cisco is addressing this by consolidating the 10 current tracks into a single CCNA certification which covers foundational level knowledge across all of them. Network automation and programmability are also included.

Cisco offers official 5-day classroom courses for each of the current tracks. The course material for the new CCNA exam hasn’t been released yet, but I expect it will also be a 5-day class (or maybe 10 days). Obviously, you can’t fit 10 weeks of training into 1 or 2 weeks, so the more advanced material will be pushed up to the CCNP level exams.

Required Exams for CCNA

To achieve the CCNA Routing and Switching before February 24th, you can EITHER:

Take BOTH the ICND1 100-105 (which gets you the CCENT) AND ICND2 200-105 exams


Take the single CCNA 200-125 exam

To achieve the CCNA after February 24th:

Take the single CCNA 200-301 exam

Everything is normal until February 23, 2020! However, if you get certified after February 24, you will receive a new certification and related certificate! Below you will learn about the main updates for cisco CCNA, CCNP, CCIE certification!

Content from: https://www.flackbox.com/cisco-ccna-ccnp-ccie-certification-update-2020

ccna change

UPDATE: You can find the list of topics on the new CCNA 200-301 exam here:

Cutover Date

The last day to take any of the current exams is February 23rd, 2020, and the first day to take new exams is February 24th, 2020. When Cisco certifications have been updated in the past, there’s usually a transitional period of around 3 months where both the old and new exams are available. Because this is such a major update Cisco is doing a clean cutover on a specific date.

If you achieve certification before February 24th, you will automatically receive the equivalent new certification after the cutover date. You will need to recertify 3 years after the date you attained the certification. For example, if you achieve the CCNA with the current exam on January 1st, 2020, you will still be a CCNA after the cutover date, and you will need to recertify (with the latest version of the exam) on January 1st, 2023.

Cisco Certified DevNet Associate

Network programmability and automation is a comparatively new technology that is becoming more prevalent, particularly in Service Provider and large enterprise environments. Cisco is releasing the new Cisco Certified DevNet Associate certification to give engineers the knowledge and skills to program network environments. It’s aimed at developers who want to learn how to use their skills in networks, or network engineers who are cross-training into programming.

What Should You Do If You Have Already Begun Studying For the CCNA?

My online CCNA course includes a suggested timetable to complete your studies in 6 weeks. If you’re reading this before December 2019, I highly recommend that you take the current exam (or the ICND1 and ICND2 exams) to get your CCNA before the changeover. There are 12 weeks from December 1st until the changeover so you have plenty of time.

The benefits you get from doing this are:

  • You retain the qualification after the changeover without having to study all the new topics in the new exam.
  • You will have advanced Routing and Switching skills you can use on the job and while studying to attain the CCNP Enterprise.
  • You will be immediately qualified for that new job or promotion you want.
  • You can move on to the next certification and keep moving up the career ladder NOW.

Waiting for the new exam is a cop-out and just procrastinating. Don’t waste time with your career, get ahead now. You can take it easy once you’ve got the qualifications done and have your dream job.

CCENT Cisco Certified Entry Networking Technician

The CCENT certification is being retired from February 24th, 2020. The qualification is not well known to employers, and job adverts for network positions typically require at least the CCNA.

If you have already passed the CCENT with the ICND1 100-105 exam, I highly recommend you upgrade to the CCNA by taking the ICND2 200-105 exam before the changeover. If you don’t do so you will need to take the new 200-301 exam to get your CCNA.

CCNP Cisco Certified Network Professional

Current CCNP Tracks before February 24th:

  • CCNP Routing and Switching
  • CCNP Cloud
  • CCNP Collaboration
  • CCNP Data Center
  • CCNP Security
  • CCNP Service Provider
  • CCNP Wireless
  • CCDP Design

(No Cyber Ops or Industrial tracks unlike the CCNA)

New CCNP Tracks from February 24th:

  • CCNP Enterprise (covers Wired and Wireless)
  • CCNP Data Center
  • CCNP Security
  • CCNP Service Provider
  • CCNP Collaboration
  • Cisco Certified DevNet Professional (new)

CCNP Change

Original CCNP RS and CCNP Wireless direction combined into CCNP Enterprise direction

ccnp change

CCNP examination form changes, originally need 3-5 written tests all passed, the next generation OF CCNP certification only need to pass 2 exams can be obtained, that is, must take a core examination, plus an optional exam

Next-generation CCNP can be certified directly without CCNA certification

cisco ccnp certification 2020

Required Exams for CCNP:

Before February 24th, you need to pass 3 or 4 (depending on the track) exams to attain each CCNP.

From February 24th, you need to pass 2 exams for each track:

  • A technology core exam – covers foundational and common concepts
  • A concentration exam – a deeper dive into the technology

Under the current rules, you usually have to have at least the CCENT to get a CCNP certification. After the changeover, there are no prerequisite exams.

CCNP Transition:

If you pass any CCNP level exams before February 24, you’ll receive badging for corresponding new exams and credit toward the new CCNP certification.

UPDATE: You can check what credit you will receive in the new program for passing CCNP level exams before February 24th with the CCNP Migration Tools here:

As with the CCNA, if you achieve certification before February 24th, you will automatically receive the equivalent new certification after the cutover date. You will need to recertify 3 years after the date you attained the certification.

CCIE Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert

Current CCIE Tracks before February 24th:

  • CCNP Routing and Switching
  • CCNP Collaboration
  • CCNP Data Center
  • CCNP Security
  • CCNP Service Provider
  • CCNP Wireless
  • CCDP Design

(No Cloud track unlike the CCNP)

New CCIE Tracks from February 24th:

  • CCNP Enterprise Infrastructure (focuses on wired networks)
  • CCNP Enterprise Wireless
  • CCIE Data Center
  • CCIE Security
  • CCIE Service Provider
  • CCIE Collaboration

Cisco Certified DevNet Expert is planned but the date it will be available has not been released yet.

Required Exams for CCIE:

Before February 24th, you need to do a written and a lab exam for each track.

From February 24th, you need to pass 2 exams for each track:

  • A technology core exam – same as for CCNP
  • A lab exam with 2 modules:
    • Design (3 hours)
    • Deploy, Operate and Optimize (5 hours)

Automation and Network Programmability is being added in the new exams.

As before there are no prerequisite exams you need to take before the CCIE. After the changeover, you need to recertify every 3 years, unlike the current rule which is every 2 years.

CCIE Change

RS exit stake in history stage, RS direction changed to Enterprise direction, existing RS certification automatically upgraded to enterprise infrastructure certification after the release of new certification

Design direction changed to DevNet direction, CCDA to DevNet Associate, CCDP to DevNet Professional

cisco cisco ccie certification 2020

Enterprise Infrastructure (Originally R&S) and Enterprise Wireless (Originally Wireless) take the same IE written test

NP written test and IE written test is the same, take the NP/IE written test can choose to directly take THE LAB to become CCIE or reference an optional examination to become CCNP, the exam is more flexible

cisco ccnp change

LAB exam modules changed from tS-DIAG-Configuration to design-and-deploy, operate and optimize two modules

module change
module change

The form of recertification has been changed to 120 credits to be activated, similar to NP certification, requiring only one core exam and one optional exam.

The next generation CCIE is still valid for 3 years, but more than 3 years only need to choose to re-test the written test to activate, no need to test LAB activation

Ten-year honor CCIE changed to 20-year honor CCIE That’s what’s in today’s Cisco workshop, six years of precipitation for the next generation of networking system changes


Cisco’s transformation foreshadows a more systematic and diverse certification of the next generation of network engineers, advocating a single-specific (core exam) and multiple (optional exams) that will flexibly choose the direction and content of learning based on their own interests or business needs.

At the same time, there is automation and development in each direction, so that the original relatively simple implementation of delivery engineers have the opportunity to move to a higher level of design and research and development! New changes have brought new challenges, new opportunities, the positive embrace of the new era, but also the best era of our generation of network engineers.

Lead4pass has changed with the times, and now we’re the best! The new era will be even better! Helping everyone is the happiest thing about Lead4pass.

[Free Update] Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 practice test 2022

Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: Cisco Certified Network Associate
Total Questions: 771 Q&A
Updated on: 2022

Cisco CCNA 200-301 free exam questions and answers are updated in 2022


Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

A. active
B. on
C. auto
D. desirable

Correct Answer: B

The Static Persistence (or “on” mode) bundles the links unconditionally and no negotiation protocol is used. In this mode, neither PAgP nor LACP packets are sent or received.



What is the function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

A. offer compression
B. increase security by using a WEP connection
C. provide authentication
D. protect traffic on open networks

Correct Answer: D



Which two commands can you use to configure an actively negotiate EtherChannel? (Choose two.)

A. channel-group 10 modes on
B. channel-group 10 mode auto
C. channel-group 10 modes passive
D. channel-group 10 mode desirable E. channel-group 10 mode active

Correct Answer: DE




Drag and drop the IPv6 addresses from the left onto the corresponding address types on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:



Which level of severity must be set to get informational Syslogs?

A. alert

B. critical
C. notice
D. debug

Correct Answer: D

Specifying a level causes messages at that level and numerically lower levels to be displayed at the destination. From Table 3: informational level = 6, debugging level = 7, notice/notifications level = 5 Severity Level 7 – Making informational, notice, Warning, Error, Critical, Alert, Emergency appear in the Syslog


Cisco CCNA 200-301 free exam questions and answers are updated throughout the year from Lead4Pass

Which type of attack is mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?
B. malware
C. man-in-the-middle
D. worm
Correct Answer: C


Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors; one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor, and the
other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
A. 20
B. 90
C. 110
D. 115
Correct Answer: B
The Administrative Distance (AD) of EIGRP is 90 while the AD of OSPF is 110 so the EIGRP route will be chosen to install
into the routing table.


Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Correct Answer: BDE


Which statement about Link Aggregation when implementing on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?
A. The EtherChannel must be configured in “mode active”.
B. When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps.
C. To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured.
D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-2/configguide/b_cg82/b_cg82_chapter_010101011.html


Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI
Correct Answer: A

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The questions for 500-220 were last updated on April 21, 2022.

Viewing questions 1-15 out of 57 questions:

Question 1:

When an SSID is configured with the Sign-On Splash page enabled, which two settings must be configured for unauthenticated clients to have full network access and not be allowed listed? (Choose two.)

A. Controller disconnection behavior

B. Captive Portal strength

C. Simultaneous logins

D. Firewall and traffic shaping

E. RADIUS for splash page settings

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/Access_Control

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming this MX has established a full tunnel with its VPN peer, how will the MX route the WebEx traffic?

A. WebEx traffic will prefer WAN 2 as long as it meets the thresholds in the “Conf” performance class.

B. WebEx traffic will prefer WAN 1 as it is the primary uplink.

C. WebEx traffic will prefer WAN 2 as long as it is up.

D. WebEx traffic will be load-balanced between both active WAN links.

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

For which two reasons can an organization become “Out of License”? (Choose two.)

A. licenses that are in the wrong network

B. more hardware devices than device licenses

C. expired device license

D. licenses that do not match the serial numbers in the organization

E. MR licenses that do not match the MR models in the organization

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Licensing/Meraki_Licensing_FAQs

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions are required to optimize load balancing asymmetrically with a 4:1 ratio between links? (Choose two.)

A. Change the primary uplink to “none”.

B. Add an internet traffic preference that defines the load-balancing ratio as 4:1.

C. Enable load balancing.

D. Set the speed of the cellular uplink to zero.

E. Change the assigned speeds of WAN 1 and WAN 2 so that the ratio is 4:1.

Correct Answer: BC

Question 5:

Which Cisco Meraki best practice method preserves complete historical network event logs?

A. Configuring the preserved event number to maximize logging.

B. Configuring the preserved event period to unlimited.

C. Configuring a Syslog server for the network.

D. Configuring Dashboard logging to preserve only certain event types.

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

Which design requirement is met by implementing Syslog versus SNMP?

A. when automation capabilities are needed

B. when proactive alerts for critical events must be generated

C. when organization-wide information must be collected

D. when information such as flows and client connectivity must be gathered

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Monitoring_and_Reporting/Meraki_Device_Reporting_-_Syslog%2C_SNMP%2C_and_API

Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. The VPN concentrator is experiencing issues. Which action should be taken to ensure a stable environment?

A. Add a deny any/any firewall rule to the end of the firewall rules.

B. Remove the connection from Internet 1.

C. Physically disconnect all LAN ports.

D. Configure the MX appliance to Routed Mode on the Addressing and VLANS page.

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. A packet arrives on the VPN concentrator with source IP and destined for IP What is the next hop for the packet, based on this concentrator routing table?

A. The concentrator gateway ( is the next hop.

B. Not enough detail is available to determine the next hop.

C. The packet is stopped.

D. The Auto VPN peer “Store 1532 ? appliance” is the next hop.

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

Company iPads are enrolled in Systems Manager without supervision, and profiles are pushed through Systems Manager.

Which outcome occurs when a user attempts to remove the “Meraki Management” profile on an iPad?

A. The “Meraki Management” profile cannot be removed.

B. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed and then pushed automatically by the Systems Manager.

C. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed. All the profiles that Systems Manager pushed are also removed.

D. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed. All the profiles Systems Manager pushed remain.

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

Which two features and functions are supported when using an MX appliance in Passthrough mode? (Choose two.)

A. intrusion prevention

B. site-to-site VPN

C. secondary uplinks


E. high availability

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MX/Networks_and_Routing/Passthrough_Mode_on_the_MX_Security_Appliance_and_Z-series_Teleworker_Gateway

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. What are the Loss and Average Latency statistics based on?

A. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing hostnames on the Insight > Web App Health page

B. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP addresses on the Security and SD-WAN > Firewall page

C. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP address that is configured on the Security and SD-WAN > SD-WAN and Traffic Shaping page

D. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP addresses on the Help > Firewall info page

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

In an organization that uses the Co-Termination licensing model, which two operations enable licenses to be applied? (Choose two.)

A. Renew the Dashboard license.

B. License a network.

C. License more devices.

D. Call Meraki support.

E. Wait for the devices to auto-renew.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Licensing/Meraki_Co-Termination_Licensing_Overview

Question 13:

Which two Systems Manager Live tools are available only for Apple Macs and Windows PCs and cannot be used on iOS or Android mobile devices? (Choose two.)

A. OS updates

B. Send notification

C. Selective wipe

D. Screenshot

E. Remote Desktop

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/SM/Other_Topics/Systems_Manager_FAQ

Question 14:

What are two ways peers interact with ports that Auto VPN uses? (Choose two.)

A. For IPsec tunneling, peers use high UDP ports within the 32768 to 61000 range.

B. Peers contact the VPN registry at UDP port 9350.

C. For IPsec tunneling, peers use high TCP ports within the 32768 to 61000 range.

D. Peers contact the VPN registry at TCP port 9350.

E. For IPsec tunneling, peers use UDP ports 500 and 4500.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MX/Site-to-site_VPN/Meraki_Auto_VPN_-_Configuration_and_Troubleshooting

Question 15:

What occurs when a configuration change is made to an MX network that is bound to a configuration template?

A. The configuration change in the bound network is combined with the template configuration inside the template.

B. The more restrictive configuration is preferred.

C. The configuration change in the bound network overrides the template configuration.

D. The template configuration overrides the configuration change in the bound network.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Templates_and_Config_Sync/Managing_Multiple_Networks_with_Configuration_Templates


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The questions for 300-820 were last updated on April 22, 2022.

Viewing questions 1-13 out of 96 questions:


Where are voice calls handled in a Cisco Jabber hybrid cloud-based deployment with Cisco Webex Platform Service?

A. Voice calls use the Webex Calling platform for call control and uses hybrid media nodes for local conferencing.
B. Voice calls use local media nodes to keep traffic internal for internal traffic and use Webex Calling for external calls.
C. Voice call use Cisco Unified Communications Manager for local calls and Webex Calling for external calls.
D. Voice calls use local Cisco Unified Communications Manager for all calls.

Correct Answer: D


Refer to the exhibit.

Mobile Cisco Jabber cannot register with on-premises Cisco Unified Communications Manager using Mobile and Remote Access. Some logs were captured on Expressway Edge.
Which action corrects this problem?

A. Ensure that the peer address does not match the Common Name on the certificate.
B. Ensure that the _cisco-uds SRV record has been configured.
C. Ensure that the credential has been entered correctly.
D. Ensure that the SIP domains are added to Expressway Core.

Correct Answer: C


Refer to the exhibit.

Calls to locally registered endpoints are failing. At present, there are two endpoints registered locally to this Expressway.
An H.323 endpoint with an alias of “EndpointA” is registered, and a SIP endpoint with an alias of
[email protected]” is also registered.
How is this issue resolved?

A. The dialplan must be redesigned to use the transforms to convert the alias into SIP URI format and then use separate search rules for each format that needs to be dialed within the local zone.
B. The calls are failing because there are insufficient licenses. Additional licenses must be installed for the Expressway to route these calls.
C. The current search rule does not match the call, so the search rule must be modified to include a SIP Variant of “Standards-Based”.
D. Calling parties are placing calls with the wrong domain. End-users must be instructed not to use the pod1. local domain as that is owned by the local system. Calls to any other domain would work.

Correct Answer: A


Which two statements about Expressway media traversal are true? (Choose two.)

A. Expressway Control is the traversal server installed in the DMZ.
B. The Expressway Edge must be put in a firewall DMZ segment.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone can be either traversal server or client.
D. The Unified Communications traversal zone can be used for Mobile and Remote Access.
E. Both Expressway Edge interfaces can be NATed.

Correct Answer: BD


Which two licenses are required for the Expressway B2B feature to work? (Choose two)

A. Traversal Server
B. Advanced Networking
C. Device Provisioning
D. Rich Media Sessions
E. TURN Relays

Correct Answer: AD


Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of a transformation applied to alias 88514?

A. [email protected]
B. [email protected] com
C. [email protected]
D. [email protected]

Correct Answer: C

The answer should be [email protected] since the regex considers anything after digit 8 (excludes 1-7), leaves the rest intact, and replaces the domain. So in the short term, it simply adds the domain after the DN.


In a Mobile and Remote Access deployment, where must communications be encrypted with TLS?

A. Cisco Expressway-E and endpoints outside the enterprise
B. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and IMandP
C. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Expressway-E, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Expressway-E, and endpoints outside the enterprise

Correct Answer: A


Refer to the exhibit showing logs from the Expressway-C, a copy of the Expressway-E certificate, and the UC traversal zone configuration for the Expressway-C. An office administrator is deploying mobile and remote access and sees an issue with the UC traversal zone. The zone is showing “TLS negotiation failure”.

What is causing this issue?

A. The Expressway-E certificate includes the Expressway-C FQDN as a SAN entry
B. The Expressway-C is missing the FQDN of Cisco UCM in the Common Name of its certificate
C. In the UC Traversal Zone on the Expressway-C, the peer address is set to the IP of the Expressway-E, which is not a SAN entry in the Expressway-E certificate
D. The Expressway-E does not have the FQDN of Cisco UCM listed as a SAN in its certificate

Correct Answer: D


Which step is taken when configuring a Cisco Expressway solution?

A. Configure the Expressway-E by using a non-traversal server zone.
B. Enable static NAT on the Expressway-E only.
C. Disable H.323 mode on the Expressway-E.
D. Enable H.323 H.460.19 demultiplexing mode on the Expressway-C.

Correct Answer: B


What is the purpose of using ICE for Mobile and Remote Access endpoints in the Cisco Collaboration infrastructure?

A. ICE controls the bandwidth usage for Cisco Collaboration endpoints if the endpoints are located outside the company network.
B. ICE enables Cisco Collaboration endpoints to determine if there is direct connectivity between them.
C. ICE uses FAST updates to optimize the video quality in case of packet loss. This technology is available only from Cisco Unified CM version 11.5 and later.
D. ICE enablement allows for the Cisco Collaboration endpoint to register through Expressway servers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager behind a firewall.

Correct Answer: B

The following ICE-capable endpoints can send media directly to each other when they are MRA-registered and ICE passthrough is enabled https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/PA/ICE/icepa125.html


An Expressway-E is configured using a single NIC with NAT.
How must the Expressway-C traversal client zone be configured to connect to the Expressway-E?

A. TLS verification must be enabled.
B. The zone profile must be set to default.
C. The peer address must be the Expressway-E NAT address.
D. The peer address must be the Expressway-E LAN 1 IP address.

Correct Answer: C


Which two types of information does Cisco Expressway back up? (Choose two.)

A. call records
B. log files
C. IP addresses
D. current call states
E. security certificates

Correct Answer: AE

The data saved to a backup file includes:
Bootstrap key (from X8.11)
System configuration settings
Clustering configuration
Local authentication data (but not Active Directory credentials for remotely managed accounts)
User account and password details
Server security certificate and private key
Call detail records (if the CDR service on Expressway is enabled)



Which DNS record and port combination must be resolved externally for Mobile and Remote Access to be used?

A. _collab-edge on port 8443
B. _cisco-uds-edge on port 5061
C. _collab-edge on port 5061
D. _cisco-uds on port 8443

Correct Answer: A


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