What is the best way to pass the Microsoft 70-744 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass Microsoft expert.) You can get free Microsoft 70-744 exam practice test questions here. Or choose https://www.lead4pass.com/70-744.html (224 Q&As). Study hard to pass the exam easily!
Skills measured: This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.
Implement Server Hardening Solutions (25-30%)
Secure a Virtualization Infrastructure (5-10%)
Secure a Network Infrastructure (10-15%)
Manage Privileged Identities (25-30%)
Implement Threat Detection Solutions (15-20%)
Implement Workload-Specific Security (5-10%)
Who should take this exam?
Candidates for this exam secure Windows Server 2016 environments. Candidates are familiar with the methods and technologies used to harden server environments and secure virtual machine infrastructures using Shielded and encryption-supported virtual machines and Guarded Fabric.
Candidates manage the protection of Active Directory and Identity infrastructures and manage privileged identities using Just in Time (JIT) and Just Enough Administration (JEA) approaches, as well as implement Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs) and secure servers using the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS).
Candidates should also be able to use threat detection solutions such as auditing access, implementing Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA), deploying Operations Management Suite (OMS) solutions, and identifying solutions for specific workloads.
Latest updates Microsoft 70-744 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. The network uses the 172.16.0.0/16 address space. Computer1 has an application named App1.exe that is located in D:\\Apps\\. App1.exe is configured to accept connections on TCP port 8080. You need to ensure that App1.exe can accept connections only when Computer1 is connected to the corporate network. Solution: You configure an inbound rule that allows the TCP protocol on port 8080, uses a scope of 172.16.0.0/16 for local IP addresses, and applies to a private profile. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B “You need to ensure that App1.exe can accept connections only when Computer1 is connected to thecorporate network.”, you should create the firewall rule for”Domain” profile instead, not the “Private” profile. https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/getting-started-wfas-firewall-profiles-ipsec(v=ws.10).aspx
QUESTION 3 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is in a workgroup. You need to collect the logs from Server1 by using Log Analytics in Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS). What should you do first? A. Join Server1 to the domain. B. Create a Data Collector Set. C. Install Microsoft Monitoring Agent on Server1. D. Create an event subscription. Correct Answer: C https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/log-analytics/log-analytics-windows-agents You need to install and connect Microsoft Monitoring Agent for all of the computers that you
You can install the OMS MMA on stand-alone computers, servers, and virtual machines.
QUESTION 4 You have a Hyper-V host named Hyperv1 that has a virtual machine named FS1. FS1 is a file server that contains sensitive data. You need to secure FS1 to meet the following requirements: -Prevent console access to FS1. -Prevent data from being extracted from the VHDX file of FS1. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. Enable BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) for all the volumes on FS1 B. Disable the virtualization extensions for FS1 C. Disable all the Hyper-V integration services for FS1 D. On Hyperv1, enable BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) for the drive that contains the VHDX file for FS1. E. Enable shielding for FS1 Correct Answer: AE -Prevent console access to FS1. -> Enable shielding for FS1-Prevent data from being extracted from the VHDX file of FS1. -> Enable BitLocker Drive Encryption(BitLocker) for all the volumes on FS1
QUESTION 5 Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. Contoso.com contains a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 is a member of a group named HyperHosts. Adatum.com contains a server named Server2. Server1 and Server2 run Windows Server 2016. Contoso.com trusts adatum.com. You plan to deploy shielded virtual machines to Server1 and to configure Admin-trusted attestation on Server2. Which component should you install and which cmdlet should you run on Server2? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
QUESTION 6 You plan to deploy three encrypted virtual machines that use Secure Boot. The virtual machines will be configured as shown in the following table.
How should you protect each virtual machine? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
QUESTION 7 You plan to enable Credential Guard on four servers. Credential Guard secrets will be bound to the TPM. The servers run Windows Server 2016 and are configured as shown in the following table.
QUESTION 8 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Serve1, that runs Windows Server 2016. A technician is testing the deployment of Credential Guard on Server1. You need to verify whether Credential Guard is enabled on Server1. What should you do? A. From a command prompt fun the credwiz.exe command. B. From Task Manager, review the processes listed on the Details tab. C. From Server Manager, click Local Server, and review the properties of Server! D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-WsManCredSSP cmdlet. Correct Answer: B https://yungchou.wordpress.com/2016/10/10/credential-guard-made-easy-in-windows-10-version-1607/ The same as before, once Credential Guard is properly configured, up and running.You should find in Task Manager the `Credential Guard\\’ process and `lsaiso.exe\\’ listed in the Detailspage as below.
QUESTION 9 Note: Thb question Is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you willNOTbeabletorrturntoit.Asa result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains multiple Hyper-V hosts. You need to deploy several critical line-of-business applications to the network to meet the following requirements: *The resources of the applications must be isolated from the physical host *Each application must be prevented from accessing the resources of the other applications. *The configurations of the applications must be accessible only from the operating system that hosts the application. Solution: You deploy one Windows container to host all of the applications. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/windowscontainers/about/
QUESTION 10 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You are deploying Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA). You create a user named User1. You need to configure the user account of User1 as a Honeytoken account. Which information must you use to configure the Honeytoken account? A. the SAM account name of User1 B. the Globally Unique Identifier (GUID) of User1 C. the SID of User1 D. the UPN of User1 Correct Answer: C https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/advanced-threat-analytics/ata-prerequisitesA user account of a user who has no network activities.This account is configured as the ATA Honeytoken user.To configure the Honeytoken user you need the SID of the user account, not the username.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/advanced-threat-analytics/install-ata-step7ATA also enables the configuration of a Honeytoken user, which is used as a trap for malicious actors ?anyauthentication associated with this (normally dormant) account will trigger an alert.
QUESTION 11 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contain an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 connects to a home network and a corporate network. The corporate network uses the 172.16.0.0/24 address space internally. Computer1 runs an application named App1 that listens to port 8080. You need to prevent connections to App1 when Computer1 is connected to the home network. Solution: From Group Policy Management, you create software restriction policy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831534(v=ws.11).aspx
QUESTION 12 You manage a guarded fabric in TPM-trusted attestation mode. You plan to create a virtual machine template disk for shielded virtual machines. You need to create the virtual machine disk that you will use to generate the template. How should you configure the disk? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 13 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You are deploying Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA) to the domain. You install the ATA Gateway on a server named Server1. To assist in detecting Pass-the-Hash attacks, you plan to configure ATA Gateway to collect events. You need to configure the query filter for event subscriptions on Server1. How should you configure the query filter? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer are. Hot Area:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/advanced-threat-analytics/configure-event-collectionTo enhance detection capabilities, ATA needs the following Windows events: 4776, 4732, 4733, 4728, 4729,4756, 4757.These can either be read automatically by the ATA Lightweight Gateway or in case the ATA LightweightGateway is not deployed,it can be forwarded to the ATA Gateway in one of two ways, by configuring the ATA Gateway to listen for SIEMevents or by configuring Windows Event Forwarding. Event ID: 4776 NTLM authentication is being used against domain controllerEvent ID: 4732 A User is Added to Security- Enabled DOMAIN LOCAL Group,Event ID: 4733 A User is removed from Security-Enabled DOMAIN LOCAL GroupEvent ID: 4728 A User is Added or Removed from Security-Enabled Global Group Event ID: 4729 A User is Removed from Security-Enabled GLOBAL GroupEvent ID: 4756 A User is Added or Removed From Security-Enabled Universal GroupEvent ID: 4757 A User is Removed From Security-Enabled Universal Group
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“Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core” Exam MB-300. Candidates for this exam are functional consultants who analyze business requirements and translate those requirements into fully realized business processes and solutions that implement industry best practices. Candidates serve as a key resource in implementing and configuring applications to meet business requirements.
Candidates for this exam have a fundamental understanding of accounting principles and financial operations of businesses,
customer service, field service, manufacturing, retail, and supply chain management concepts.
Here you can get the latest free MB-300 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!
Candidates for this exam typically specialize in one or more feature sets of Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations, including finance, manufacturing, and supply chain management
Use common functionality and implementation tools (20-25%)
Configure security, processes, and options (45-50%)
Perform data migration (15-20%)
Validate and support the solution (15-20%)
Free Microsoft MB-300 Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations implementation team lead. A series of test plans need to be created and tracked during a company\\’s development phase. Multiple users will be testing multiple aspects as code is released. Issues and remediations to bugs will also need to be tracked. You need to identify Microsoft solutions that offer these capabilities. What should you use? A. Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations B. Lifecycle Services (LCS) C. Solution management D. Microsoft Azure DevOps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations systems administrator. Microsoft recently released a new feature for public preview that would add significant value to your organization without licensing adjustments. You need to enable the feature. Where can you enable the preview feature? A. Solution management B. Lifecycle Services C. Organizational administration module D. experience.dynamics.com E. System administration module Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3 You implement Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. The implementation will undergo User Acceptance Testing (UAT). You create test case recordings. To coordinate testing across multiple environments, UAT must be integrated with Microsoft Azure DevOps. You need to configure Business process modeler (BPM) and Azure DevOps to complete user acceptance testing. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Synchronize the BPM library with Azure DevOps B. Create a test pass and test case in Azure DevOps C. Upload saved Task recorder files to BPM D. Create a test plan and test suites in Azure DevOps E. Synchronize the BPM library with a Git repo F. Upload saved Task recorder files to Azure DevOps Correct Answer: ACD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/using-task-guides-and-bpm-to-create-user-acceptance-tests
QUESTION 4 A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You are the primary approver for purchase requisitions that are greater than $500,000. You are going on vacation for two weeks. You need to assign another user as the approver only for purchase requisitions greater than $500,000. What should you do? A. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of Module B. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of All C. Under User Options, add a user and assign the scope of Workflow Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 You set up security roles for the users in a company. You must use standard security roles when possible. You need to identify the standard security roles. Which of the following can you assign to a user as a standard security role? A. Waterspider B. System engineer C. Developer D. Business development manager Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 You are a systems administrator at a company that has implemented Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. New employees are starting at the company. You need to extend the electronic signatures functionality to them. Which two actions should you perform? Each answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. On the Email parameters page, specify that SSL is required B. Specify the user\\’s email address C. In License configuration, enable Maintenance mode D. Select the Electronic signature check box Correct Answer: CD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/fin-and-ops/organization-administration/tasks/set-up-electronic-signatures
QUESTION 8 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations systems administrator. Your company needs to document and test all possible scenarios for a given implementation. Implementation gaps need to be documented using the tool available for tracking and linking to delivered extensions. You need to identify the correct tool to accomplish this. What should you use? A. APQC Unified Libraries B. Shared asset library C. Business process modeler (BPM) D. Microsoft Azure DevOps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations system administrator. Data is being migrated from a customized version of a legacy application to Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. Some of the fields in the entity are the same, and some are different. As a starting point, you need to automatically map as many fields as possible within Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. Which feature or tool should you use? A. Use the Mapping visualization tool B. Generate source mapping C. Use Data templates D. Use the Data task automation tool E. Copy configuration data Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/data-entities/data-entities-data-packages?toc=/fin-and-ops/toc.json#mapping
QUESTION 11 You plan a data migration from Dynamics AX 2009 to a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment. You need to ensure that you can perform the data migration. What should you do first? A. Upgrade the existing on-premises environment to Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations online B. Migrate content to Dynamics POS (Point-of-Sale) 2009 C. Upgrade the existing on-premises environment to Dynamics AX 2012 R2 D. Migrate content to Dynamics 365 Business Central Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. They need additional information and want a subledger to record information for additional reporting rather than customizing all reports. You need to set up the posting to accommodate the need for a subledger. Which three actions should you take? Each answer presents part of the solution. A. Update existing reports to prevent data in the identified area from reporting B. Create posting profiles to post to the identified area as needed for the request C. Create posting definitions to post to the identified area as needed for the request D. Update existing reports to add data in the identified area E. Identify an area of the chart of accounts to record to as the subledger Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 13 You are a Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations security administrator. Users are reporting that they cannot access a given form in the system. You need to quickly identify what roles, duties, and privileges grant access to this form to determine the best course of action for granting access. What should you do? A. Security duty assignments report B. Security role access report C. Security development tool D. Security diagnostics E. Maintenance mode Correct Answer: D
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“CCDE Written Exam” Exam 352-001. Here you can get the latest free 352-001 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!
Cisco CCDE written exam will validate that professionals have the expertise to gather and clarify network functional requirements, develop network designs to meet functional specifications, develop an implementation plan, convey design decisions and their rationale, and possess expert-level network infrastructure knowledge.
QUESTION 1 In an OSPF network with 20 routers connected together with Ethernet cabling , which topology typically takes the longest to converge? A. Full mesh B. Ring C. Squared D. Triangulated E. Partial mesh Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Company A has grown nationwide in the U.S., and each new remote branch has a Metro Ethernet circuit provisioned back to the data center at the headquarters on the West Coast. The operations team says that it cannot manage hundreds of circuits as the company continues to grow. You review the topology and notice that many of the branches are close to each other in geographical zones. How can you redesign this network to improve manageability and increase scalability? A. Add an aggregation layer router in each geographical zone. B. Add a redundant data center on the East Coast to serve some of the traffic there. C. Add a default route in each branch toward the data center on the West Coast. D. Use Optimized Edge Routing at the data center. E. Build an overlay MPLS network with Layer 3 VPN. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A service provider is offering a QoS-based transport service. Three classes have been defined in the core, including an Expedited Forwarding (EF) class for VoIP traffic. Which tool should be used at the ingress for the EF class? A. policing B. shaping C. WRED D. CB-WFQ Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Your enterprise customer has asked where they should deploy flow monitoring in their network to monitor traffic between branch offices. What is your design recommendation? A. at the edge of the network so that user traffic will be seen B. at the central site, because all traffic from the remotes will be seen there. C. in the core, because all traffic will be seen there D. in the data center, because all user traffic will be seen there Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which design option reduces the occurrence of IGP microloops? A. Deploy LSA throttle. B. Tune the SPF hold time to be lower than the SPF runtime on all nodes. C. Tune the SPF runtime to be lower than the SPF hold time on all nodes. D. Deploy LFA. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 In an MPLS-VPN environment, what is the effect of configuring an identical set of route targets for a particular VRF, but then configuring nonidentical route distinguisher across multiple PE devices? A. The routes will be correctly handled by the control plane, but there will be instances where routes take up twice as much memory. B. The routes will propagate to the remote PE, but the PE will never install them in its forwarding table. C. The routes will be rejected by the remote PE because they have a different RD than its routes. D. The routes will not even be sent to any remote PE with a different RD. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 You are tasked with implementing a 1000-phone remote access solution, where phone calls will traverse a WAN edge router. Assuming all of the following features are supported in a hardware- assisted manner, which of the following will have the most negative impact A. encryption B. stateful firewall C. MPLS encapsulation D. GRE encapsulation Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 ACME Corporation is deploying a new HR application that requires the network infrastructure to monitor and react to certain conditions in the network. Which feature should be used to meet this design requirement? A. Cisco IOS Embedded Event Manager B. IP SLA C. reflexive ACLs D. route maps E. SOAP F. exit status Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Why is H-VPLS considered more scalable than flat VPLS? A. It minimizes signaling overhead by building two separate layers pseudowire meshes. B. It minimizes signaling overhead by only requiring a full pseudowire mesh among N-PEs. C. It eliminates signaling overhead on core devices. D. It eliminates signaling overhead between the N-PE and U-PE. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10 You have been hired by Acme Corporation to evaluate their existing network and determine if the current network design is secure enough to prevent man-in-the-middle attacks. When evaluating the network, which switch security option should you investigate to ensure that authorized ARP responses take place according to known IP-to-MAC address mapping? A. ARP rate limiting B. DHCP snooping C. Dynamic ARP Inspections D. IP Source Guard Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 What is the primary requirement for deploying OSPF graceful restart on a router? A. Aggressive routing protocol hellos and keepalives must be running on the router. B. The adjacent router must support graceful restart helper mode. C. Some form of fast Layer 2 down detection must be enabled on the router. D. The adjacent routers must be enabled to forward traffic during the failure. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Why should IGP advertisements be disabled on an access link where a host is attached? A. because hosts do not run routing protocols B. to prevent the injection of bad routes C. to reduce router overhead D. because edge hosts are statically routed Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 To improve the stability of a global network, you have been tasked with changing the design to include link-state topology summarization. What are two issues that you should address as part of the design? (Choose two.) A. slow convergence B. suboptimal routing C. traffic black-holing D. packet reordering Correct Answer: BC
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Pass the Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 exam. “Implementing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCII)”: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-165.html (Total Questions: 294 Q&As). I know you most want to get here for free 300-165 dumps. The latest free 300-165 exam practice questions and 300-165 pdf help you improve your skills and exam experience!
Test your Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 exam level
QUESTION 1 Which statement about the MPLS feature set is true? A. It is not license dependent. B. It can be installed from any VDC. C. It can be enabled only in the default VDC. D. It must be installed from the default VDC. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Which two benefits are realized when deploying Cisco Catalyst 6500 VSS 1440 functionality in a data center? (Choose two.) A. Stateful Switchover across chassis B. enhanced security of network equipment C. enhanced speed of spanning-tree convergence D. reduced number of Inter-Switch Links E. implementation of Multichassis EtherChannel F. deployment of VRRP and HSRP Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 6 Which statement about enhanced zoning on Cisco Multilayer Director Switches is true? A. Zone changes can scheduled with a CRON job. B. It allows patial zone set changes to be distributed without having to active a zone set. C. Enhanced zoning is compatible with IVR. D. More than one zone set can be active wit enhanced zoning. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which three selections represent implementations of Cisco VN-Link technology? (Choose three.) A. Cisco Nexus 1000V B. Cisco Nexus 2000 FEX C. Cisco VM-FEX D. VMware PTS E. vMotion Correct Answer: ACD The VM is powered on and resides on the ESX Host 1 with all the information stored on the shared storage. The VM was connected to the PODy (where y is the number of your POD) PTS VDS by associating it to port group VLAN61 that was created on the Cisco Nexus 5548 device. The VM has been connected to the vPC system automatically using a VN-Link in the hardware in PTS mode or in VM-FEX mode. The VEM bits are used in PTS mode to connect the VM VNIC to the VMNIC interface. In this case, the VMNIC interface is not a real VMNIC but a dynamic VNIC that is presented as an interface to the ESX OS. The dynamic VNIC is enabled when the Cisco UCS VIC creates and configures the VNIC parameters inherited from port group VLAN61.
QUESTION 8 In policy-based routing, which action is taken for packets that do not match any of the route-map statements? A. forwarded using the closest matching route-map statement B. forwarded using destination-based routing C. forwarded after the egress queue empties on the outbound interface D. forwarded using the last statement in the route map Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Assuming hello PDU authentication has been disabled, which command re-enables the feature on a FabricPath interface? A. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication-type cleartext B. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication-type md5 C. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis authentication check D. switch (config-if) # fabricpath isis hello-interval Correct Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit. Which corrective action is taken to resolve the problem? A. Use shut and no shut on interface ethernet 199/1/1 so that the VLANs come up. B. Place interface ethernet 199/1/1 in VLAN 4 in the N5K-2 configuration. C. Add VLAN 4 to vPC 199 D. Prune all but four VLANs from vPC 199. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands are missing from this configuration that an admin needs to integrate a Cisco Nexus 5000 switch with vCenter to leverage VM-FEX? (Choose two.)
A. vmware dvs datacenter-name B. vmware dvs C. remote ip address port 80 vrf D. connection-type vmware E. installation-method auto Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12 Which situation must you consider when you add a remote RADIUS server to a Cisco Nexus device? A. If RADIUS authentication fails, the device falls back to local authentication automatically. B. If RADIUS authentication fails, the user is denied access with no further authentication checks. C. If the RADIUS server is unreachable, users are unable to log in. D. If the RADIUS server is unreachable, all users are given access with the default role. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 You have a vPC configuration with two functional peers and the peer link is up. Which two statements describe spanning-tree operations in the configuration? (Choose two.) A. The secondary switch processes BPDUs only if the peer-link fails B. The primary and secondary switch generate and process BPDUs C. vPC imposes a rule that the peer link is always blocking D. vPC removes some VLANs from the spanning tree for vPC use E. vPC requires the peer link to remain in the forwarding state. Correct Answer: AC
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We share the latest exam dumps throughout the year to help you improve your skills and experience! The latest Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 exam dumps, online exam Practice test to test your strength, Cisco 300-070 “Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 (CIPTV1)” in https://www.lead4pass.com/300-070.html Update the exam content throughout the year to ensure that all exam content is authentic and valid. 300-070 PDF Online download for easy learning.
This exam tests learners for implementing a Cisco Unified Collaboration solution in a single-site environment. The exam focuses primarily on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Candidates will need to show they can configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager, implement gateways and Cisco Unified Border Element, and build dial plans to place on-net and off-net voice and video calls using traditional numbered dial plans and Uniform Resource Identifiers (URIs).
Candidates will also implement media resources, including voice and video conferences, and be able to describe how quality of service ensures that the network provides the required quality to voice and video calls.
Free test Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 Exam questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 When comparing SIP H.323 and MGCP, which of the following is specific to SIP? A. The dial plan is directly on the gateway. B. SIP provides support for third-party entities. C. SIP defines Translation per the gateway. D. SIP has a centralized dial plan. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit. Bob has set his phone to forward calls to extension 5000. When a call is placed to extension 2000,which phone will ring?
A. Phone A B. Phone B C. Phone C D. Phone D Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 On Cisco Unified Communications Manager, where can you change the softkey templates from your IP phone? A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability > Device > Device Settings > Softkey Templates. B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration > Device > Device Settings > Softkey Templates. C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration > Device > Device Settings > Phone ButtonTemplate. D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration > Device > Device Settings > Device Defaults. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which two transcoder types does Cisco Unified Communications Manager support? (Choose two.) A. IOS enhanced media termination point B. Virtual media termination point C. PLDM Termination Point D. ISR termination point E. Media termination point hardware Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 5 How are Cisco Unified CallManager location parameters used? A. Assign directory numbers to devices as they connect to the IP telephony network. B. Specify the bandwidth used for audio and video calls. C. Implement call admission control in a centralized call processing deployment. D. Provide alternate call routing when the primary call path is unavailable. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 How does Cisco Unified Border Element attach recorder profiles for media forking? A. codec configuration B. dial peers C. SIP trunks D. CTI integration Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which two options describe how the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool updates auto- registering IP phones? (Choose two.) A. An administrator can schedule when auto-registered phones can dial in to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool directory number. B. A new phone can dial in to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool directory number to manage the device user profile. C. A new phone can dial in to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool directory number to update its MAC address in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and download the correct configuration file D. A replacement phone can dial in to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool directory number to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. E. A replacement phone can dial in to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool directory number to download the configuration for the phone it replaces. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 8 Which wildcard character in a route pattern can be used to match to one or more digits in the range 0 through 9? A. + B. X C. ! D. ? Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager menu path is used to access the softkey template configuration window? A. Device > Device Settings > Softkey Templates B. Device Settings > Softkey Templates C. IP Phone > Template > Softkey D. Device > IP Phone > Template > Softkey Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which three options are types of media resources in CUCM? (Choose three.) A. Music on hold B. H.323 trunk C. Media Termination Point D. Meet-Me Conference E. SIP trunk F. Transcoder Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 12 Which three options are components of Media Resources Architecture? (Choose three.) A. Music on hold B. Media Resource Manager C. Media Resource Group D. Route list E. Route group F. Media Resource Group List Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 13 Which two options can a route pattern be assigned? (Choose two.) A. a gateway that is not assigned to a route group B. a gateway that is assigned to a route group C. a route list with no route groups configured D. a route list with one or more route groups configured Correct Answer: AD
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Free test Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 Exam questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 What is the common artifact that is used to uniquely identify a detected file? A. Hash B. Timestamp C. File size Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which CVSSv3 Attack Vector metric value requires the attacker to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component? A. local B. physical C. network D. adjacent Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which element is included in an incident response plan? A. organization mission B. junior analyst approval C. day-to-day firefighting D. siloed approach to communications Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which of the following is an example of a managed security offering where incident response experts monitor and respond to security alerts in a security operations center (SOC)? A. Cisco CloudLock B. Cisco\\’s Active Threat Analytics (ATA) C. Cisco Managed Firepower Service D. Cisco Jasper Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which option is unnecessary for determining the appropriate containment strategy according to NIST.SP800-61 r2? A. effectiveness of the strategy B. time and resource needed to implement the strategy C. need for evidence preservation D. attack vector used to compromise the system Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable component? A. confidentiality B. integrity C. availability D. complexity Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which of the following is true about attribution in a cybersecurity investigation? A. A suspect-led approach is often accepted in supreme courts. B. A suspect-led approach is pejorative and often biased to the disadvantage of those being investigated. C. A suspect-led approach is mostly used in corporate investigations. D. A suspect-led approach is mostly used in private investigations. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Which component of the NIST SP800-61 r2 incident handling strategy reviews data? A. preparation B. detection and analysis C. containment, eradication, and recovery D. post-incident analysis Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Refer to the Exhibit. A customer reports that they cannot access your organization\\’s website. Which option is a possible reason that the customer cannot access the website?
A. The server at 10.33.1.5 is using up too much bandwidth causing a denial- of-service. B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus. C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised. D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet sensors. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Which analyzing technique describe the outcome as well as how likely each outcome is? A. deterministic B. exploratory C. probabilistic D. descriptive Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which network device creates and sends the initial packet of a session? A. source B. origination C. destination D. network Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 At which stage attacking the vulnerability belongs in Cyber kill chain? A. Exploitation B. Reconnaissance C. Weaponization D. Delivery E. Installation F. Command and control (C2) G. Actions on objectives Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which element can be used by a threat actor to discover a possible opening into a target network and can also be used by an analyst to determine the protocol of the malicious traffic? A. TTLs B. ports C. SMTP replies D. IP addresses Correct Answer: B
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Latest effective Microsoft Business Intelligence 70-462 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 You administer all the deployments of Microsoft SQL Server 2012 in your company. You need to ensure that data changes are sent to a non-SQL Server database server in near real time. You also need to ensure that data on the primary server is unaffected. Which configuration should you use? A. SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform transactional replication B. Two servers configured in different data centers SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit Availability Mode C. Two servers configured in different data centers SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode One server configured as an Active Secondary D. SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform snapshot replication E. Two servers configured in the same data center SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit Availability Mode One server configured as an Active Secondary F. Two servers configured on the same subnet SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode G. Two servers configured in a Windows Failover Cluster in the same data center SQL Server configured as a clustered instance H. Two servers configured in the same data center A primary server configured to perform log-shipping every 10 minutes A backup server configured as a warm standby Correct Answer: A Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/ms151149.aspx
QUESTION 2 What is the minimum recommended amount of RAM for SQL Server 2012 Enterprise? A. 512 MB B. 1 GB C. 2 GB D. 4 GB Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 You are a database administrator for a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 environment. You want to deploy a new application that will scale out the workload to at least five different SQL Server instances. You need to ensure that for each copy of the database, users are able to read and write data that will then be synchronized between all of the database instances. Which feature should you use? A. Database Mirroring B. Peer-to-Peer Replication C. Log Shipping D. AvailabilityGroups Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which feature should you enable and configure so session requests addressed to a specific instance can be allocated different processor resources based on session request properties? A. Resource Governor B. Windows System Resource Manager C. Processor affinity D. I/O affinity Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database. The transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting database is only updated from the transactional database. The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table:The differential backup of the reporting database fails. Then, the reporting database fails at 14:00 hours. You need to ensure that the reporting database is restored. You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal. What should you do? A. Restorethelatestfullbackup, andrestorethelatestdifferentialbackup.Then, restorethelatestlogbackup. B. Perform a point-in-time restore. C. Restore the latest full backup. D. Restorethe latestfullbackup, andrestore thelatestdifferential backup.Then, restoreeachlog backuptaken before the time of failure from the most recent differential backup. E. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup. F. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most recentfull backup. G. Perform a page restore. H. Perform a partial restore. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 Before moving an SQL Server 2012 database file to a new location, which of the following must first be accomplished? A. The database must be set to OFFLINE. B. The SQL Server Service must be stopped. C. The database must be deleted. D. The database must have the shrink” operation run. Correct Answer: A https://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/ms345483%28v=sql.110%29.aspx
QUESTION 7 Which of the following is a disaster recovery solution offered in SQL Server 2012 and involves maintaining a standby copy of a primary database? A. AlwaysOn B. Log Shipping C. Clustering D. DataGuard Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which of the following is a valid upgrade path for SQL Server 2012? A. SQL Server 2000 -> SQL Server 2012 B. SQL Server 2000 -> SQL Server 2005 -> SQL Server 2012 C. SQL Server 7 -> SQL Server 2012 D. Oracle 11g -> SQL Server 2012 Correct Answer: B https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms143393%28v=sql.110%29.aspx https://technet.microsoft.com/en- us/library/ms143393%28v=sql.90%29.aspx
QUESTION 9 You are developing a database application by using Microsoft SQL Server 2012. An application that uses a database begins to run slowly. You discover that a large amount of memory is consumed by single-use dynamic queries. You need to reduce procedure cache usage from these statements without creating any additional indexes. What should you do? A. Add a HASH hint to the query. B. Add a LOOP hint to the query. C. AddaFORCESEEKhinttothequery. D. Add an INCLUDE clause to the index. E. Add a FORCESCAN hint to the Attach query. F. Add a columnstore index to cover the query. G. Enable the optimize for ad hoc workloads option. H. Cover the unique clustered index with a columnstore index. I. Include a SET FORCEPLAN ON statement before you run the query. J. IncludeaSETSTATISTICSPROFILE ONstatementbeforeyou runthequery. K. Include a SET STATISTICS SHOWPLAN_XML ON statement before you run the query. L. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL REPEATABLE READ statement before you run the query. M. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SNAPSHOT statement before you run the query. N. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE statement before you run the query. Correct Answer: G Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/cc645587.aspx
QUESTION 10 You administer several Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database servers. Merge replication has been configured for an application that is distributed across offices throughout a wide area network (WAN). Many of the tables involved in replication use the XML and varchar (max) data types. Occasionally, merge replication fails due to timeout errors. You need to reduce the occurrence of these timeout errors. What should you do? A. Set the Merge agent on the problem subscribers to use the slow link agent profile. B. Create a snapshot publication, and reconfigure the problem subscribers to use the snapshot publication. C. Change the Merge agent on the problem subscribers to run continuously. D. Set the Remote Connection Timeout on the Publisher to 0. Correct Answer: A When replication is configured, a set of agent profiles is installed on the Distributor. An agent profile contains a set of parameters that are used each time an agent runs: each agent logs in to the Distributor during its startup process and queries for the parameters in its profile. For merge subscriptions that use Web synchronization, profiles are downloaded and stored at the Subscriber. If the profile is changed, the profile at the Subscriber is updated the next time the Merge Agent runs. For more information about Web synchronization, see Web Synchronization for Merge Replication. Replication provides a default profile for each agent and additional predefined profiles for the Log Reader Agent, Distribution Agent, and Merge Agent. In addition to the profiles provided, you can create profiles suited to your application requirements. An agent profile allows you to change key parameters easily for all agents associated with that profile. For example, if you have 20 Snapshot Agents and need to change the query timeout value (the – QueryTimeout parameter), you can update the profile used by the Snapshot Agents and all agents of that type will begin using the new value automatically the next time they run. You might also have different profiles for different instances of an agent. For example, a Merge Agent that connects to the Publisher and Distributor over a dialup connection could use a set of parameters that are better suited to the slower communications link by using the slow link profile.
QUESTION 11 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN). The financial database has the following characteristics: A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D). A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E). Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space. Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space. The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day. The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database. These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time. A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours. You need to ensure that the backup size is as small as possible. Which backup should you perform every two hours? A. BULK_LOGGED B. NO_CHECKSUM C. FULL D. RESTART E. CHECKSUM F. STANDBY G. DBO.ONLY H. NORECOVERY I. SIMPLE J. SKIP K. Transaction log L. COPY_ONLY M. Differential N. CONTINUE_AFTER_ERROR Correct Answer: K http://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/ms186865.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/ms191429.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/ms179478.aspx
QUESTION 12 You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance. You need to configure a new database to support FILETABLES. What should you do? Choose all that apply. A. Disable FILESTREAM on the Database. B. Enable FILESTREAM on the Server Instance. C. Configure the Database for Partial Containment. D. Create a non-empty FILESTREAM file group. E. Enable Contained Databases on the Server Instance. F. Set the FILESTREAM directory name on the Database. Correct Answer: BDF Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/gg509097.aspx
QUESTION 13 Which of the following SQL Server 2012 indexes is ordered independently of the actual physical order of the table data on which the index is based? A. CLUSTERED B. BITMAP C. NONCLUSTERED D. IND_ORDERED Correct Answer: C https://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/ms188783%28v=sql.110%29.aspx
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Candidates for this exam have fundamental knowledge of Windows devices and mobility. Candidates should have some hands-on experience with Windows devices, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, antimalware products, firewalls, network topologies and devices, and network ports.
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Latest effective CompTIA CASP CAS-002 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 A system administrator needs to develop a policy for when an application server is no longer needed. Which of the following policies would need to be developed? A. Backup policy B. De-provisioning policy C. Data retention policy D. Provisioning policy Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 A large organization has gone through several mergers, acquisitions, and de-mergers over the past decade. As a result, the internal networks have been integrated but have complex dependencies and interactions between systems. Better integration is needed in order to simplify the underlying complexity. Which of the following is the MOST suitable integration platform to provide event-driven and standards- based secure software architecture? A. Service oriented architecture (SOA) B. Federated identities C. Object request broker (ORB) D. Enterprise service bus (ESB) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 An administrator notices the following file in the Linux server\\’s /tmp directory. -rwsr-xr-x. 4 root root 234223 Jun 6 22:52 bash* Which of the following should be done to prevent further attacks of this nature? A. Never mount the /tmp directory over NFS B. Stop the rpcidmapd service from running C. Mount all tmp directories nosuid, noexec D. Restrict access to the /tmp directory Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A business wants to start using social media to promote the corporation and to ensure that customers have a good experience with their products. Which of the following security items should the company have in place before implementation? (Select TWO). A. The company must dedicate specific staff to act as social media representatives of the company. B. All staff needs to be instructed in the proper use of social media in the work environment. C. Senior staff blogs should be ghost written by marketing professionals. D. The finance department must provide a cost benefit analysis for social media. E. The security policy needs to be reviewed to ensure that social media policy is properly implemented. F. The company should ensure that the company has sufficient bandwidth to allow for social media traffic. Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 5 Company XYZ is in negotiations to acquire Company ABC for $1.2millon. Due diligence activities have uncovered systemic security issues in the flagship product of Company ABC. It has been established that a complete product rewrite would be needed with average estimates indicating a cost of $1.6millon. Which of the following approaches should the risk manager of Company XYZ recommend? A. Transfer the risk B. Accept the risk C. Mitigate the risk D. Avoid the risk Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 CORRECT TEXT An administrator wants to install a patch to an application. Given the scenario, download, verify and install the patch in the most secure manner. Instructions: The last install that is completed will be the final submission. Correct Answer: Review the for full solution of this exam. In this case the second link should be used (This may vary in actual exam). The first link showed the following error so it should not be used.
Also, Two of the link choices used HTTP and not HTTPS as shown when hovering over the links as shown:
Since we need to do this in the most secure manner possible, they should not be used. Finally, the second link was used and the MD5 utility of MD5sum should be used on the install.exe file as shown. Make sure that the hash matches. Finally, type in install.exe to install it and make sure there are no signature verification errors.
QUESTION 7 An educational institution would like to make computer labs available to remote students. The labs are used for various IT networking, security, and programming courses. The requirements are: 1. Each lab must be on a separate network segment. 2. Labs must have access to the Internet, but not other lab networks. 3. Student devices must have network access, not simple access to hosts on the lab networks. 4. Students must have a private certificate installed before gaining access. 5. Servers must have a private certificate installed locally to provide assurance to the students. 6. All students must use the same VPN connection profile. Which of the following components should be used to achieve the design in conjunction with directory services? A. L2TP VPN over TLS for remote connectivity, SAML for federated authentication, firewalls between each lab segment B. SSL VPN for remote connectivity, directory services groups for each lab group, ACLs on routing equipment C. IPSec VPN with mutual authentication for remote connectivity, RADIUS for authentication, ACLs on network equipment D. Cloud service remote access tool for remote connectivity, OAuth for authentication, ACL on routing equipment Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 The security team for Company XYZ has determined that someone from outside the organization has obtained sensitive information about the internal organization by querying the external DNS server of the company. The security manager is tasked with making sure this problem does not occur in the future. How would the security manager address this problem? A. Implement a split DNS, only allowing the external DNS server to contain information about domains that only the outside world should be aware, and an internal DNS server to maintain authoritative records for internal systems. B. Implement a split DNS, only allowing the external DNS server to contain information about internal domain resources that the outside world would be interested in, and an internal DNS server to maintain authoritative records for internal systems. C. Implement a split DNS, only allowing the external DNS server to contain information about domains that only the outside world should be aware, and an internal DNS server to maintain non-authoritative records for external systems. D. Implement a split DNS, only allowing the internal DNS server to contain information about domains the outside world should be aware of, and an external DNS server to maintain authoritative records for internal systems. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 At 9:00 am each morning, all of the virtual desktops in a VDI implementation become extremely slow and/ or unresponsive. The outage lasts for around 10 minutes, after which everything runs properly again. The administrator has traced the problem to a lab of thin clients that are all booted at 9:00 am each morning. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem and the BEST solution? (Select TWO). A. Add guests with more memory to increase capacity of the infrastructure. B. A backup is running on the thin clients at 9am every morning. C. Install more memory in the thin clients to handle the increased load while booting. D. Booting all the lab desktops at the same time is creating excessive I/O. E. Install 10-Gb uplinks between the hosts and the lab to increase network capacity. F. Install faster SSD drives in the storage system used in the infrastructure. G. The lab desktops are saturating the network while booting. H. The lab desktops are using more memory than is available to the host systems. Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 10 A system worth $100,000 has an exposure factor of eight percent and an ARO of four. Which of the following figures is the system\\’s SLE? A. $2,000 B. $8,000 C. $12,000 D. $32,000 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 A security architect is assigned to a major software development project. The software development team has a history of writing bug prone, inefficient code, with multiple security flaws in every release. The security architect proposes implementing secure coding standards to the project manager. The secure coding standards will contain detailed standards for: A. error handling, input validation, memory use and reuse, race condition handling, commenting, and preventing typical security problems. B. error prevention, requirements validation, memory use and reuse, commenting typical security problems, and testing code standards. C. error elimination, trash collection, documenting race conditions, peer review, and typical security problems. D. error handling, input validation, commenting, preventing typical security problems, managing customers, and documenting extra requirements. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 The senior security administrator wants to redesign the company DMZ to minimize the risks associated with both external and internal threats. The DMZ design must support security in depth, change management and configuration processes, and support incident reconstruction. Which of the following designs BEST supports the given requirements? A. A dual firewall DMZ with remote logging where each firewall is managed by a separate administrator. B. A single firewall DMZ where each firewall interface is managed by a separate administrator and logging to the cloud. C. A SaaS based firewall which logs to the company\\’s local storage via SSL, and is managed by the change control team. D. A virtualized firewall, where each virtual instance is managed by a separate administrator and logging to the same hardware. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 A popular commercial virtualization platform allows for the creation of virtual hardware. To virtual machines, this virtual hardware is indistinguishable from real hardware. By implementing virtualized TPMs, which of the following trusted system concepts can be implemented? A. Software-based root of trust B. Continuous chain of trust C. Chain of trust with a hardware root of trust D. Software-based trust anchor with no root of trust Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14 An organization uses IP address block 203.0.113.0/24 on its internal network. At the border router, the network administrator sets up rules to deny packets with a source address in this subnet from entering the network, and to deny packets with a destination address in this subnet from leaving the network. Which of the following is the administrator attempting to prevent? A. BGP route hijacking attacks B. Bogon IP network traffic C. IP spoofing attacks D. Man-in-the-middle attacks E. Amplified DDoS attacks Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 A bank provides single sign on services between its internally hosted applications and externally hosted CRM. The following sequence of events occurs: 1. The banker accesses the CRM system, a redirect is performed back to the organization\\’s internal systems. 2. A lookup is performed of the identity and a token is generated, signed and encrypted. 3. A redirect is performed back to the CRM system with the token. 4. The CRM system validates the integrity of the payload, extracts the identity and performs a lookup. 5. If the banker is not in the system and automated provisioning request occurs. 6. The banker is authenticated and authorized and can access the system. This is an example of which of the following? A. Service provider initiated SAML 2.0 B. Identity provider initiated SAML 1.0 C. OpenID federated single sign on D. Service provider initiated SAML 1.1 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16 The security administrator has just installed an active\passive cluster of two firewalls for enterprise perimeter defense of the corporate network. Stateful firewall inspection is being used in the firewall implementation. There have been numerous reports of dropped connections with external clients. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this problem? A. TCP sessions are traversing one firewall and return traffic is being sent through the secondary firewall and sessions are being dropped. B. TCP and UDP sessions are being balanced across both firewalls and connections are being dropped because the session IDs are not recognized by the secondary firewall. C. Prioritize UDP traffic and associated stateful UDP session information is traversing the passive firewall causing the connections to be dropped. D. The firewall administrator connected a dedicated communication cable between the firewalls in order to share a single state table across the cluster causing the sessions to be dropped. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17 An internal committee comprised of the facilities manager, the physical security manager, the network administrator, and a member of the executive team has been formed to address a recent breach at a company\\’s data center. It was discovered that during the breach, an HVAC specialist had gained entry to an area that contained server farms holding sensitive financial data. Although the HVAC specialist was there to fix a legitimate issue, the investigation concluded security be provided for the two entry and exit points for the server farm. Which of the following should be implemented to accomplish the recommendations of the investigation? A. Implement a policy that all non-employees should be escorted in the data center. B. Place a mantrap at the points with biometric security. C. Hire an HVAC person for the company, eliminating the need for external HVAC people. D. Implement CCTV cameras at both points. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18 A recently hired security administrator is advising developers about the secure integration of a legacy in- house application with a new cloud based processing system. The systems must exchange large amounts of fixed format data such as names, addresses, and phone numbers, as well as occasional chunks of data in unpredictable formats. The developers want to construct a new data format and create custom tools to parse and process the data. The security administrator instead suggests that the developers: A. Create a custom standard to define the data. B. Use well formed standard compliant XML and strict schemas. C. Only document the data format in the parsing application code. D. Implement a de facto corporate standard for all analyzed data. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19 In developing a new computing lifecycle process for a large corporation, the security team is developing the process for decommissioning computing equipment. In order to reduce the potential for data leakage, which of the following should the team consider? (Select TWO). A. Erase all files on drive B. Install of standard image C. Remove and hold all drives D. Physical destruction E. Drive wipe Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 20 An enterprise must ensure that all devices that connect to its networks have been previously approved. The solution must support dual factor mutual authentication with strong identity assurance. In order to reduce costs and administrative overhead, the security architect wants to outsource identity proofing and second factor digital delivery to the third party. Which of the following solutions will address the enterprise requirements? A. Implementing federated network access with the third party. B. Using a HSM at the network perimeter to handle network device access. C. Using a VPN concentrator which supports dual factor via hardware tokens. D. Implementing 802.1x with EAP-TTLS across the infrastructure. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21 The helpdesk is receiving multiple calls about slow and intermittent Internet access from the finance department. The following information is compiled: Caller 1, IP 172.16.35.217, NETMASK 255.255.254.0 Caller 2, IP 172.16.35.53, NETMASK 255.255.254.0 Caller 3, IP 172.16.35.173, NETMASK 255.255.254.0 All callers are connected to the same switch and are routed by a router with five built-in interfaces. The upstream router interface\\’s MAC is 00-01-42-32-ab-1a A packet capture shows the following: 09:05:15.934840 arp reply 172.16.34.1 is-at 00:01:42:32:ab:1a (00:01:42:32:ab:1a) 09:06:16.124850 arp reply 172.16.34.1 is-at 00:01:42:32:ab:1a (00:01:42:32:ab:1a) 09:07:25.439811 arp reply 172.16.34.1 is-at 00:01:42:32:ab:1a (00:01:42:32:ab:1a) 09:08:10.937590 IP 172.16.35.1 > 172.16.35.255: ICMP echo request, id 2305, seq 1, length 65534 09:08:10.937591 IP 172.16.35.1 > 172.16.35.255: ICMP echo request, id 2306, seq 2, length 65534 09:08:10.937592 IP 172.16.35.1 > 172.16.35.255: ICMP echo request, id 2307, seq 3, length 65534 Which of the following is occurring on the network? A. A man-in-the-middle attack is underway on the network. B. An ARP flood attack is targeting at the router. C. The default gateway is being spoofed on the network. D. A denial of service attack is targeting at the router. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22 An administrator receives reports that the network is running slow for users connected to a certain switch. Viewing the network traffic, the administrator reviews the following: 18:51:59.042108 IP linuxwksta.55467 andgt; dns.company.com.domain: 39462+ PTR? 126.96.36.199.in-addr.arpa. (42) 18:51:59.055732 IP dns.company.com.domain andgt; linuxwksta.55467: 39462 NXDomain 0/0/0 (42) 18:51:59.055842 IP linuxwksta.48287 andgt; dns.company.com.domain: 46767+ PTR? 255.19.4.10.in-addr.arpa. (42) 18:51:59.069816 IP dns.company.com.domain andgt; linuxwksta.48287: 46767 NXDomain 0/0/0 (42) 18:51:59.159060 IP linuxwksta.42491 andgt; 10.4.17.72.iscsi-target: Flags [P.], seq 1989625106:1989625154, ack 2067334822, win 1525, options [nop,nop,TS val 16021424 ecr 215646227], length 48 18:51:59.159145 IP linuxwksta.48854 andgt; dns.company.com.domain: 3834+ PTR? 188.8.131.52.in-addr.arpa. (41) 18:51:59.159314 IP 10.4.17.72.iscsi-target andgt; linuxwksta.42491: Flags [P.], seq 1:49, ack 48, win 124, options [nop,nop,TS val 215647479 ecr 16021424], length 48 18:51:59.159330 IP linuxwksta.42491 andgt; 10.4.17.72.iscsi-target: Flags [.], ack 49, win 1525, options [nop,nop,TS val 16021424 ecr 215647479], length 0 18:51:59.165342 IP dns.company.com.domain andgt; linuxwksta.48854: 3834 NXDomain 0/0/0 (41) 18:51:59.397461 ARP, Request who-has 10.4.16.58 tell 10.4.16.1, length 46 18:51:59.397597 IP linuxwksta.37684 andgt; dns.company.com.domain: 15022+ PTR? 184.108.40.206.in-addr.arpa. (41) Given the traffic report, which of the following is MOST likely causing the slow traffic? A. DNS poisoning B. Improper network zoning C. ARP poisoning D. Improper LUN masking Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23 A penetration tester is assessing a mobile banking application. Man-in-the-middle attempts via a HTTP intercepting proxy are failing with SSL errors. Which of the following controls has likely been implemented by the developers? A. SSL certificate revocation B. SSL certificate pinning C. Mobile device root-kit detection D. Extended Validation certificates Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24 A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) because money has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still found to be vulnerable. The business recently funded a patch management product and SOE hardening initiative. A third party auditor reported findings against the business because some systems were missing patches. Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation? A. The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been given patch management and SOE hardening products. B. The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers and the remediation takes time to complete. C. The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them instead of the CFO. D. Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders and managed accordingly. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25 There has been a recent security breach which has led to the release of sensitive customer information. As part of improving security and reducing the disclosure of customer data, a training company has been employed to educate staff. Which of the following should be the primary focus of the privacy compliance training program? A. Explain how customer data is gathered, used, disclosed, and managed. B. Remind staff of the company\\’s data handling policy and have staff sign an NDA. C. Focus on explaining the “how” and “why” customer data is being collected. D. Republish the data classification and the confidentiality policy. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26 To prevent a third party from identifying a specific user as having previously accessed a service provider through an SSO operation, SAML uses which of the following? A. Transient identifiers B. SOAP calls C. Discovery profiles D. Security bindings Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27 A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of a major consulting firm has significantly increased the company\\’s security posture; however, the company is still plagued by data breaches of misplaced assets. These data breaches as a result have led to the compromise of sensitive corporate and client data on at least 25 occasions. Each employee in the company is provided a laptop to perform company business. Which of the following actions can the CISO take to mitigate the breaches? A. Reload all user laptops with full disk encryption software immediately. B. Implement full disk encryption on all storage devices the firm owns. C. Implement new continuous monitoring procedures. D. Implement an open source system which allows data to be encrypted while processed. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28 Ann, a systems engineer, is working to identify an unknown node on the corporate network. To begin her investigative work, she runs the following nmap command string: [email protected]:~$ sudo nmap -O 192.168.1.54 Based on the output, nmap is unable to identify the OS running on the node, but the following ports are open on the device: TCP/22 TCP/111 TCP/512-514 TCP/2049 TCP/32778 Based on this information, which of the following operating systems is MOST likely running on the unknown node? A. Linux B. Windows C. Solaris D. OSX Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29 An external auditor has found that IT security policies in the organization are not maintained and in some cases are nonexistent. As a result of the audit findings, the CISO has been tasked with the objective of establishing a mechanism to manage the lifecycle of IT security policies. Which of the following can be used to BEST achieve the CISO\\’s objectives? A. CoBIT B. UCF C. ISO 27002 D. eGRC Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30 A developer is determining the best way to improve security within the code being developed. The developer is focusing on input fields where customers enter their credit card details. Which of the following techniques, if implemented in the code, would be the MOST effective in protecting the fields from malformed input? A. Client side input validation B. Stored procedure C. Encrypting credit card details D. Regular expression matching Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31 A completely new class of web-based vulnerabilities has been discovered. Claims have been made that all common web-based development frameworks are susceptible to attack. Proof-of-concept details have emerged on the Internet. A security advisor within a company has been asked to provide recommendations on how to respond quickly to these vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes how the security advisor should respond? A. Assess the reliability of the information source, likelihood of exploitability, and impact to hosted data. Attempt to exploit via the proof-of-concept code. Consider remediation options. B. Hire an independent security consulting agency to perform a penetration test of the web servers. Advise management of any `high\\’ or `critical\\’ penetration test findings and put forward recommendations for mitigation. C. Review vulnerability write-ups posted on the Internet. Respond to management with a recommendation to wait until the news has been independently verified by software vendors providing the web application software. D. Notify all customers about the threat to their hosted data. Bring the web servers down into “maintenance mode” until the vulnerability can be reliably mitigated through a vendor patch. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32 An assessor identifies automated methods for identifying security control compliance through validating sensors at the endpoint and at Tier 2. Which of the following practices satisfy continuous monitoring of authorized information systems? A. Independent verification and validation B. Security test and evaluation C. Risk assessment D. Ongoing authorization Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34 Executive management is asking for a new manufacturing control and workflow automation solution. This application will facilitate management of proprietary information and closely guarded corporate trade secrets. The information security team has been a part of the department meetings and come away with the following notes: -Human resources would like complete access to employee data stored in the application. They would like automated data interchange with the employee management application, a cloud-based SaaS application. -Sales is asking for easy order tracking to facilitate feedback to customers. -Legal is asking for adequate safeguards to protect trade secrets. They are also concerned with data ownership questions and legal jurisdiction. -Manufacturing is asking for ease of use. Employees working the assembly line cannot be bothered with additional steps or overhead. System interaction needs to be quick and easy. -Quality assurance is concerned about managing the end product and tracking overall performance of the product being produced. They would like read-only access to the entire workflow process for monitoring and baselining. The favored solution is a user friendly software application that would be hosted onsite. It has extensive ACL functionality, but also has readily available APIs for extensibility. It supports read-only access, kiosk automation, custom fields, and data encryption. Which of the following departments\\’ request is in contrast to the favored solution? A. Manufacturing B. Legal C. Sales D. Quality assurance E. Human resources Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 35 VPN users cannot access the active FTP server through the router but can access any server in the data center. Additional network information: DMZ network -192.168.5.0/24 (FTP server is 192.168.5.11) VPN network -192.168.1.0/24 Datacenter -192.168.2.0/24 User network – 192.168.3.0/24 HR network -192.168.4.0/24\ Traffic shaper configuration: VLAN Bandwidth Limit (Mbps) VPN50 User175 HR250 Finance250 Guest0 Router ACL: ActionSourceDestination Permit192.168.1.0/24192.168.2.0/24 Permit192.168.1.0/24192.168.3.0/24 Permit192.168.1.0/24192.168.5.0/24 Permit192.168.2.0/24192.168.1.0/24 Permit192.168.3.0/24192.168.1.0/24 Permit192.168.5.1/32192.168.1.0/24 Deny192.168.4.0/24192.168.1.0/24 Deny192.168.1.0/24192.168.4.0/24 Denyanyany Which of the following solutions would allow the users to access the active FTP server? A. Add a permit statement to allow traffic from 192.168.5.0/24 to the VPN network B. Add a permit statement to allow traffic to 192.168.5.1 from the VPN network C. IPS is blocking traffic and needs to be reconfigured D. Configure the traffic shaper to limit DMZ traffic E. Increase bandwidth limit on the VPN network Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 A growing corporation is responding to the needs of its employees to access corporate email and other resources while traveling. The company is implementing remote access for company laptops. Which of the following security systems should be implemented for remote access? (Select TWO). A. Virtual Private Network B. Secure Sockets Layer for web servers C. Network monitoring D. Multifactor authentication for users E. Full disk encryption F. Intrusion detection systems Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 37 A large financial company has a team of security-focused architects and designers that contribute into broader IT architecture and design solutions. Concerns have been raised due to the security contributions having varying levels of quality and consistency. It has been agreed that a more formalized methodology is needed that can take business drivers, capabilities, baselines, and re-usable patterns into account. Which of the following would BEST help to achieve these objectives? A. Construct a library of re-usable security patterns B. Construct a security control library C. Introduce an ESA framework D. Include SRTM in the SDLC Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38 A security consultant is conducting a network assessment and wishes to discover any legacy backup Internet connections the network may have. Where would the consultant find this information and why would it be valuable? A. This information can be found in global routing tables, and is valuable because backup connections typically do not have perimeter protection as strong as the primary connection. B. This information can be found by calling the regional Internet registry, and is valuable because backup connections typically do not require VPN access to the network. C. This information can be found by accessing telecom billing records, and is valuable because backup connections typically have much lower latency than primary connections. D. This information can be found by querying the network\\’s DNS servers, and is valuable because backup DNS servers typically allow recursive queries from Internet hosts. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39 A Security Manager is part of a team selecting web conferencing systems for internal use. The system will only be used for internal employee collaboration. Which of the following are the MAIN concerns of the security manager? (Select THREE). A. Security of data storage B. The cost of the solution C. System availability D. User authentication strategy E. PBX integration of the service F. Operating system compatibility Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 40 Company policy requires that all company laptops meet the following baseline requirements: Software requirements: Antivirus Anti-malware Anti-spyware Log monitoring Full-disk encryption Terminal services enabled for RDP Administrative access for local users Hardware restrictions: Bluetooth disabled FireWire disabled WiFi adapter disabled Ann, a web developer, reports performance issues with her laptop and is not able to access any network resources. After further investigation, a bootkit was discovered and it was trying to access external websites. Which of the following hardening techniques should be applied to mitigate this specific issue from reoccurring? (Select TWO). A. Group policy to limit web access B. Restrict VPN access for all mobile users C. Remove full-disk encryption D. Remove administrative access to local users E. Restrict/disable TELNET access to network resources F. Perform vulnerability scanning on a daily basis G. Restrict/disable USB access Correct Answer: DG
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Latest effective Cisco 400-101 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which three message type are used for prefix delegation in DHCPv6?(Choose threE. A. Solicit B. Renew C. Advertise D. DHCP Discover E. DHCPAck F. DHCP Offer Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 2 Which option describes how a VTPv3 device responds when it detects a VTPv2 device on a trunk port? A. It sends VTPv2 packets only B. It sends a Special packet that contains VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets information. C. It sends VTPv3 packets only. D. It sends VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets. Correct Answer: D
Refer to exhibit. Which statement is true about a valid IPv6 address that can be configured on tunnel interface0 ? A. 2001:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address B. 6to4 tunneling allows you to use any IPv6 address C. 2002:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPV6 address D. There is not enough information to calculate the IPv6 address Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which statement about passive interfaces is true? A. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-state protocol data units B. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange of hello packets. C. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as a not-so-stubby network. D. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which two protocols exclude the source and destination IPaddresses from the application data stream? (Choose two) A. TFTP B. NTP C. SMTP D. SSH E. SNMP Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6 From which component does an IS-IS router construct its link-state database? A. LSAs B. Hello packets C. LSPs D. SPTs Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 R1#sh ip eigrp top all IP-EIGRP Topology Table for AS (192.168.13.1) Codes: P – Passive, A – Active, U – Update, Q- Query, R – Reply, r – reply Status, s – sia Status P 10.0.0.0/8, 1 successors, FD is 3586560, serno 8 via 192.168.1.5 (3586560/3074560), Serial0/0 P 192.168.100.0/24, 2 successors, FD is 409600, serno 5 via 192.168.13.3 (409600/128256), FastEthernet0/1 via 192.168.12.3 (435200/409600), FastEthernet0/0 Refer to the exhibit. Which statements about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true? A. The metric installed into the route table is 128256 B. The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600 C. The metric installed into the route table is 435200 D. The Reported Distance for the Successor is 128256 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two) A. low-latency queuing B. congestion-avoidance algorithm C. fast retransmission D. IP service level agreements E. fast start F. fast recovery Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9 Which statements about PMTUD is true? A. GRE tunnels use PMTUD to fragment data packets by default. B. It increases the connection\\’s send MSS value to prevent fragmentation. C. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets at the endpoint of a TCP connection D. It is supported by TCP and UDP E. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets traveling across a smaller MTU link between Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 10 Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.) A. lt supports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention. B. It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only. C. lt supports unicast address families for 1Pv4 and 1Pv6 D. lt supports only one address family per instance. E. It supports multicast address families for 1Pv4 F. lt supports multicast address families for 1Pv6 Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11 Which two statements about SSM are true? (Choose two) A. It requires IGMPv3 for source filtering. B. It can work in conjunction with the ISM service. C. It uses the group address range 220.127.116.11 – 18.104.22.168 by default D. It is designed to support many-to-many applications within a PIM domain. E. It uses (*, G) multicast routing entries to make forwarding decisions. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12 An NSSA area has two ABRs connected to Area 0. Which statement is true? A. Both ABRs translate Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs B. The ABR with the highest router ID translates Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs C. No LSA translation is needed D. Both ABRs forward Type-5 LSAs from the NSSA area to backbone area Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which three statements correctly describe the encoding used by NETCONF and RESTCONF? (Choose three) A. RESTCONF uses JSON-encoded data B. RESTCONF uses YAML-encoded data C. RESTCONF uses XML-encoded data D. NETCONF uses JSON-encoded data E. NETCONF uses YAML-encoded data F. NETCONF uses XML-encoded data Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 14Refer to the exhibit. The route-map wau2sitc is being used for redistributing BGP routes into the eigrp 28 process. Which option best describes the resulting redistribution of routes? A. The deny, sequence 5 is preventing any routes from and a lag B. A default routes is being redistributed with a metric and a tag C. all routes are being redistributed with a metric and a tag D. policy routing matches: 0 packets means that there are no matches and no routes are being redistributed Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15 Which two statement about VPLS are true? (Choose two) A. Split horizon is used on PE devices to prevent loops. B. IP is used to switch Ethernet frames between sites. C. Spanning tree is extended from CE to CE D. VPLS extends a layer 2 broadcast domain. E. PE routers dynamic associate to peers. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 16 Which two statements about IS-IS authentication are true ?(Choose two.) A. Level 2 LSPs transmit the password encrypted inside the IS-IS PDU. B. Area and domain authentication must be configured together. C. Passwords can be configured on a per-interface basis. D. If LSP authentication is in use , unauthorized devices can form neighbor adjacencies. E. Lever 1 LSPs use the domain password. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 17 Refer to the exhibit.
If the route to 10.1.1.1 is removed from the R2 routing table, which server becomes the master NTP server? A. R2 B. the NTP server at 10.3.3.3 C. the NTP server at 10.4.4.4 D. the NTP server with the lowest stratum number Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two) A. The priority queue is disabled B. Queue 1 is served twice as fast as queue 2 C. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 1/3 of the available bandwidth D. Queue 2 is served twice as fast as queue 1 E. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 2/3 of the available bandwidth F. Queue 1 is allocated 2 percent of the available bandwidth and queue 2 is allocated 2 percent of the available bandwidth Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 19 What are three of the key fields that define a unique NetFlow flow ( choose three) A. Source MAC address B. Cyclic Redundancy Check C. Layer 3 protocol type D. Type of service E. Input logical interface F. Canonical Format Identifier Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 20 Which three technologies can be used to implement redundancy for IPv6? (Choose three. A. IPv6 NA B. NHRP C. HSRP D. DVMRP E. GLBP F. IPv6 RA Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 21 Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type-3 LSAs? (Choose three A. metric B. link state C. subnet mask D. IP subnet E. authentication type F. external route tag Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 22 Which two operating modes does VPLS support? (Choose two) A. Transport mode B. Loose mode C. VLAN mode D. Strict mode E. Port mode F. Dynamic mode Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 23 Which IP SLA operation type is enhanced by lhe use of the IP SL.As Responder? A. ICMP Echo B. UDP Echo C. DNS D. HTTP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24 Which two values are required to implement an EIGRP named configurations? (Choose two) A. address-family B. virtual-instance-name C. subnet-mask D. router-id E. process-id Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25 Which option is the Cisco recommended method to secure access to the console port? A. Set the privilege level to a value less than 15 B. Configure a very short timeout (less than 100 milliseconds) for the port C. Configure the activation-character command D. Configure an ACL Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26 When you implement PIR, which IP SLA probes is used to determine the MOS? A. throughput B. jitter C. latency D. packet loss Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27 Refer To the exhibit.
When pockets are transmitted from r1 to r2, where are they encrypted? A. on the EO/0 interface on R1 B. on the outside interface C. in the forwarding engine D. in the tunnel E. within the crypto map F. on the EO/1 interface on R2 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the output?
A. This router runs NTPv6 B. This router runs OSPFv3 and is not a DR C. A directly connected router on another interface than this one will be able to successfully ping the link local address of Gi2/0 D. This router runs EIGRpv6 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29 which two conditions are required for tracking the interface IP routing state?(choose two) A. The interface line protocol must be up B. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disable on the interface C. A VRF must be enabled on the interface D. A known IP address must be configured on the interface E. IP routing must be disabled on the interface Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 30 How long will the root bridge continue to send configuration BPDUs to notify all bridges to age out their MAC address tables? A. The max-age time B. The forward delay + max-age time C. The forward delay time D. Three times the hello interval Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31 Which three options are the main security features in SNMPv3? (Choose three) A. authentication B. MIB persistence C. message integrity D. authorization E. encryption F. accounting Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 32 Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true A. The FIB tables resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled. B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table. C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled. D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33 Company A have two remote sites, which are connected to a common ISP by BGP. At each site, company A is using the same autonomous system number. Which BGP feature can you implement to enable routing between the two site? A. allowas-in B. AS path prepending C. communities D. peer groups Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34 Which three criteria are used for stackwise election of a master switch? A. lowest MAC address B. Vl.AN revision number C. longest uptime D. user-selected priority E. highest MAC address F. IOS version number Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 35 External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs. You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to enable the routers to exchange routes? A. Clear the EIGRP process B. Change the router ID on R2. C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship. D. Change the corresponding loopback address. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 Refer to the exhibit.Which two statements about the given NetFlow configuration are true?(Choose two) A. It supports both IPv4 and IPv6 flows. B. It uses the default port to send flows to the exporter. C. It supports only IPv6 flows. D. It supports only IPv4 flows. E. It supports a maximum of 2048 entres. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 37 Which command can you enter to allow a multicast-enabled router to advertise itself to the BSR router as PIMv2 c-RP? A. ip pim autorp listener B. ip pim send-rp-announce C. ip pim rp-candidate D. ip pim rp-address E. ip pim send-rp- discovery Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38How can you configure this network so that customers can transparently extend their networks through the provider? A. Configure eBGP peering among the CE routers B. Configure OSPF peering between the CE and PE routers. C. Configure eBGP peering between the CE and PE routers D. Configure EIGRP OTP on the CE routers. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39 Refer to the exhibit.Which BGP feature is being used? A. graceful shutdown B. graceful restart C. PIC D. fast session deactivation Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40 Refer to the exhibit.When it attempted to register the EEM script, the device returned this error message. Which action can you take to correct the problem? A. Configure the end command at the end of the BACKUP EEM policy B. Configure the event none command so that the event can be triggered manually C. Configure the event action to run the applet D. Configure the event manager run command to register the event Correct Answer: C
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Latest effective Cisco 400-051 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit.Cisco unity connection site A has two locations and Cisco Unity connection Site B has one Location. Which protocol connect the location and servers together for messaging and replication? A. 1 SMTP 2 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 3 None B. 1 HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 2 SMTP 3 None C. 1 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 2 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 3 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP D. 1 SMTP 1 SMTP 1 SMTP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit.
A customer has two Cisco Unified Communication manager 9.X clusters that serve the same location. An engineer has attempted to set up Enhanced Location call admission control so that any call within a site between phones on the two clusters do not decrement the available bandwidth to and from that site. However, the real time monitoring tool currently shows bandwidth being used from the site to Hub_none. When a call is placed between phones at the site, which action must be taken to correct this situation? A. The link between clusters must be a type of inter-cluster trunk instead of a sip trunk. B. The hub_none location must have a link configuration to the phantom location. C. The device pool names must match between clusters. D. The Hub_none location must have a link configured to the shadow location. E. The SIP trunks should be changed to use the shadow location. Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3 Assume a 30-millisecond voice payload, 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end- of-frame flag, and the IP, UDP, and RTP headers are compressed to 2 bytes, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for eight VoIP calls that use a A. 729 codec over a multilink PPP link with cRTP enabled? B. 121.6 kb/s C. 92.8 kb/s D. 88.4 kb/s E. 83.2 kb/s F. 78.4 kb/s Correct Answer: D Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk652/tk698/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094ae2.shtml
QUESTION 4 In Cisco IOS routers that use low latency queuing, which algorithm is used to presort traffic going into the default queue? A. first-in, first-out B. last-in, first-out C. weighted round robin D. fair queuing E. random processing Correct Answer: D WFQ is a flow-based queuing algorithm used in Quality of Service (QoS) that does two things simultaneously: It schedules interactive traffic to the front of the queue to reduce response time, and it fairly shares the remaining bandwidth between high bandwidth flows. A stream of packets within a single session of a single application is known as flow or conversation. WFQ is a flow-based method that sends packets over the network and ensures packet transmission efficiency which is critical to the interactive traffic. This method automatically stabilizes network congestion between individual packet transmission flows.
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit.Which ds0-group option should you select to support automated number identification information collection on inbound calls for this digital T1 voice circuit? A. eandm-wink-start B. eandm-delay-dial C. eandm-delay-dial D. eandm-lmr E. eandm-fgd Correct Answer: E Because it can receive ANI information and sends DNIS info. But can\\’t send ANI. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/isdn/configuration/15-mt/vi-15-mt- book/vi-imp-t1cas-voip.html
QUESTION 6 Which configuration parameter defines whether or not the user portion of a directory URI is case sensitive on Cisco Unified Communications Manager 9.1 or later? A. URI Dialing Display Preference in Cisco CallManager Service Parameter B. URI Lookup Policy in Cisco CallManager Service Parameter C. URI Dialing Display Preference in Enterprise Parameters D. URI Lookup Policy in Enterprise Parameters E. The user portion of a directory URI is always case sensitive and cannot be changed. Correct Answer: D Explanation: Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports the following formats in the user portion of a directory URI (the portion before the @ symbol): Accepted characters are a-z, A-Z, 0-9, !, $, %, and, *, _, +, ~, -, =, \, ?, \, `, ,, ., /. The user portion has a maximum length of 47 characters. The user portion accepts percent encoding from %2[0-9A-F] through %7[0-9A-F]. For some accepted characters, Unified CM automatically applies percent encoding. See below for more information on percent encoding. The user portion is case-sensitive or case-insensitive depending on the value of the URI Lookup Policy enterprise parameter. The default value is case-sensitive. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/bat/9_1_1/CUCM_BK_C271A6 9D_00_cucm-bulk- administration-guide-91/CUCM_BK_C271A69D_00_cucm-bulk- administration-guide-91_chapter_01001110.html
QUESTION 7 Which two call processing features have a lower priority than the Do Not Disturb settings on a Cisco IP phone? (Choose two.) A. park reversion for a locally parked call B. hold reversion C. intercom D. pickup notification E. terminating side of a call back F. originating side of a call back Correct Answer: DE For the DND Ringer Off option, only visual notification gets presented to the device. For the DND Call Reject option, no notification gets presented to the device. For the terminating side of the call, Do Not Disturb overrides call back: When the phone that terminates the call uses DND Ringer Off, the Callback Available screen will be displayed on the phone after the terminating side goes off hook and on hook. When the phone that terminates the call has DND Call Reject enabled but the phone becomes available (goes off hook and on hook), a new screen will be presented to the originating device as ” has become available but is on DND-R”. Callback available notification will be sent only after the terminating side disables DND Call Reject.
QUESTION 8 Your customer reported that the Sync Agent service failed to start after a reinstallation of a Cisco this problem after you review these customer logs? A. Add “appadmin” application user in Cisco UCM and IM and Presence B. Add “appadmin” application user in Ciscon IM and Presence C. Add “appaduser” application user in Cisco UCM D. Add “appadmin” application user in Cisco UCM E. Add “appaduser” application user in Cisco UCM and IM and Presence Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 What is the maximum delay requirement, in milliseconds, for deploying Cisco Unity Connection servers in active/active pairs over different sites? A. 150 B. 200 C. 100 D. 250 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which option describes how you can show the same contacts in your Jabber for Windows on-premise client as you do on the corporate directory of your IP phone? A. Switch your Jabber client to use UDS instead of EDI. B. Switch your Jabber client to use EDI instead of UDS. C. Update your IMandP server to sync off of the same LDAP directory as your Cisco Unified Communications Manager. D. Add Jabber to your inbound/outbound firewall rules on your PC. E. Jabber can only pull directly from LDAP and cannot directly search the Cisco Unified Communications Manager user database. Correct Answer: A LDAP contact resolution — The client cannot use LDAP for contact resolution when outside of the corporate firewall. Instead, the client must use UDS for contact resolution. When users are inside the corporate firewall, the client can use either UDS or LDAP for contact resolution. If you deploy LDAP within the corporate firewall, Cisco recommends that you synchronize your LDAP directory server with Cisco Unified Communications Manager to allow the client to connect with UDS when users are outside the corporate firewall. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/Windows/9_7/JABW_BK_C4 C679C9_00_cisco-jabber-for- windows-97/JABW_BK_C4C679C9_00_cisco-jabber-for- windows-97_chapter_0111.html#CJAB_CN_C2733196_00
QUESTION 11 Where can a Cisco Unified CM administrator define Call Detail Records data collection interval (Choose two.) A. Cisco Unified Reporting B. Cisco Unified CM Administration Enterprise Parameters C. Cisco Unified Serviceability D. Cisco Unified CM Administration Service Parameters E. Call Detail Records data collection interval is not a configurable parameter. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 A collaboration engineer configures Cisco Unified CM location using G.711 and iLBC for each site. The bandwidth for each link is shown. Which two options represent the maximum concurrent number of calls supported by grand junction to Casper for each Codec? (Choose two.) A. 20 G.711 calls B. 18 G.711 calls C. 36 iLBC calls D. 42 iLBC calls E. 11 G.711 calls F. 51 iLBC calls Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 13 Which procedure uses H.225 messages to exchange H.245 Master-Salve Determination information? A. H.323 early media B. H.245 terminal capability set C. H 225 tunneling D. H.245 tunneling E. H.323 Fast Connect Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14 Which statement about high availability for XMPP federation in Cisco IM and Presence is true? A. A maximum of two Cisco IM and Presence nodes can be enabled for XMPP federation. B. Cisco IM and Presence load balances outbound requests across all nodes that are enabled for XMPP federation. C. Cisco IM and Presence load balances outbound requests across both nodes that are enabled for XMPP federation in a subcluster. D. The XMPP federation-enabled nodes should have different priorities and weights on the published DNS SRV for proper inbound request node selection. E. A single DNS SRV record that resolves to an XMPP federation-enabled node must be published on a public DNS server for inbound request routing. Correct Answer: B High availability for XMPP federation differs from the high availability model for other IM and Presence Service features because it is not tied to the two node sub-cluster model. To provide high availability for XMPP federation, you must enable two or more IM and Presence Service nodes in your cluster for XMPP federation; having multiple nodes enabled for XMPP federation not only adds scale but it also provides redundancy in the event that any node fails.
An IT engineer upgraded Cisco Unified Communications Manager to version 9.1.2. When accessing CLI of the server, this output is displayed. Which three actions must be taken to correct this issue? (Choose Three) A. From the recovery disk menu options, select option [F] to check and correct disk file system B. Login to DRS and perform Cisco Unified CM restore from the backup C. From the recovery disk menu option, select option [Q] to quit recovery program and reboot the virtual machine D. Download Cisco unified CM recovery iso, boot the virtual machine from it and verify disk partitioning layout E. Create a new virtual machine from Cisco ova template and create a fresh install with the Cisco Unified CM bootable iso F. Take the backup of the system with disaster recovery system G. From the recovery disk menu options, select option [A] to align the partitions of the virtual machines Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 16 A user has reported that when trying to access Visual Voicemail the following error is received “Unable to open application. Please try again later. If it continues to fail contact your administrator”. The collaboration engineer is working on the problem found on the following phone logs: CVMInstallerModule STATUS_install_cancelled STATUS_INSTALL)_ERROR [thread=installer MQThread][class=cip midp midletsuite installerModule][function=update status] Midlet install Canceled/ERROR…visual Voicemail How can this issue be resolved? A. Replace the sever name with the server IP on service URL field B. Eliminate the space in the service Name field C. Configure DNS on phone configuration so it can resolve server name D. Check the Enable checkbox on IP phone service configuration Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17 Which Cisco IM and Presence service is responsible for logging all IM traffic that passes through the IM and Presence server to an external database for IM compliance? A. Cisco Presence Engine B. Cisco Serviceability Reporter C. Cisco Sync Agent D. Cisco XCP Connection Manager E. Cisco XCP Message Archiver Correct Answer: E The Cisco Unified Presence XCP Message Archiver service supports the IM Compliance feature. The IM Compliance feature logs all messages sent to and from the Cisco Unified Presence server, including point-to-point messages, and messages from adhoc (temporary) and permanent chat rooms for the Chat feature. Messages are logged to an external Cisco-supported database.
QUESTION 18 Exhibit:Which two phone security functions are available to this Cisco IP phone? (Choose two.) A. Default Authentication of TFTP downloaded files using a signing key B. Encryption of TFTP configuration files using a signing key C. Encrypted call signalling but unencrypted call media D. Encrypted call media but unencrypted call signalling E. Encrypted call signalling and media F. Local trust verification on the Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 19 A CUCM engineer has deployed Type B SIP Phones on a remote site and no SIP dial rules were deployed for these phones. How Will CUCM receive the DTMF after the phone goes off- hook and the button are pressed? A. Each digit will be received by CUCM in a SIP NOTIFY message as soon as they are pressed B. The first digit will be received in a sip invite and subsequent digits will be received using NOTIFY message as soon as they are pressed. C. Each digit bill be received by CUCM in a SIP INVITE as soon as the dial soft key has been pressed. D. All digits will be received by CUCM in a SIP INVITE as soon as the dial soft key has been pressed Correct Answer: A Type-B IP telephones offer functionality based on the Key Press Markup Language (KPML) to report user key presses. Each one of the user input events will generate its own KPML-based message to Unified CM. From the standpoint of relaying each user action immediately to Unified CM, this mode of operation is very similar to that of phones running SCCP.Every user key press triggers a SIP NOTIFY message to Unified CM to report a KPML event corresponding to the key pressed by the user. This messaging enables Unified CM\\’s digit analysis to recognize partial patterns as they are composed by the user and to provide the appropriate feedback, such as immediate reorder tone if an invalid number is being dialed. In contrast to Type-A IP phones running SIP without dial rules, Type-B SIP phones have no Dial key to indicate the end of user input. A user dialing 1000 would be provided call progress indication (either ringback tone or reorder tone) after dialing the last 0 and without having to press the Dial key. This behavior is consistent with the user interface on phones running the SCCP protocol. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/5x/50dialpl.html#wp1090653 https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/87236/working-concept-sccp-sip-phones-and-dial-rules
QUESTION 20 Which Cisco Unified CM Application user is created by default and used by Cisco Unified CM Extension Mobility? A. CCMAdministrator B. EMSysUser C. TabSyncSysUser D. CCMSysUser E. CTIGWUser Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21 Which design restriction applies to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition clustering over the WAN deployment with extended round-trip times in Cisco Unified CM 9.1 and later releases? A. SIP and H.323 intercluster trunks are supported. B. Only SIP trunk is supported. C. SIP trunks and H.323 gateways are supported. D. A minimum of 1.544 Mb/s bandwidth is required for all traffic between any two nodes in the cluster. E. Only RSVP agents can be configured and registered to the SME cluster as media resources. Correct Answer: B Using only SIP trunks in the SME cluster allows you to deploy a “media transparent” cluster where media resources, when required, are inserted by the end or leaf Unified Communications system and never by SME. Using only SIP trunks also allows you to use extended round trip times (RTTs) between SME nodes when clustering over the WAN.
QUESTION 22 A Jabber for window user is on a call with cisco telepresence EX90 endpoint at the same location. During the call, the video on the jabber for Windows application was high quality but the video on the EX90 was choppy and slow. When the administrator checked the service rate on the EX90 it showed 2048 Kbps. Which two configuration changes can fix this problem? A. Lower the bit rate in the region configuration in communication manager between the endpoints B. Increase the location bandwidth for immersive video between the endpoints C. Enable BFCP in the SIP profile for the jabber client D. Enable H.263 on the EX90 E. Replace the camera for the jabber user with the precision HD USB camera F. Increase the bandwidth between the jabber video client and the EX90 Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 23 Refer to the exhibit.What does an outside caller hear when calling a user and forwarding to Cisco Unity Connection? A. The caller hears the Emergency greeting, followed by the voicemail greeting of the user they originally called. B. The caller hears the message “Emergency Message is not available,” followed by the voicemail greeting of the user they originally called. C. The caller hears the emergency greeting followed by the Opening Greeting message. D. The caller hears the Main Message greeting and then the call is disconnected. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24 Which codec complexity mode, when deployed on Cisco IOS routers with DSPs using the C5510 chipset, supports the most G.711 calls per DSP? A. Low B. Medium C. High D. Secure E. Flex Correct Answer: E The flex parameter allows the complexity to automatically adjust to either medium or high complexity depending on the needs of a call. For example, if a call uses the G.711 codec, the C5510 chipset automatically adjusts to the medium- complexity mode. However, if the call uses G.729, the C5510 chipset uses the high complexity mode
QUESTION 25 An engineer configuration EmCC needs to understand the priority order in which the home Cluster concatenates calling search space (CSS) when users login to the visiting Phones. Drag the CSS on the left to the correct priority order on the right. Not all options will be used. Priority 1 is the highest and priority 3 is the lowest. Select and Place:Correct Answer:
QUESTION 26 Which two rules apply to MMOH in SRST? (Choose two.) A. A maximum of three MOH groups are allowed. B. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their IP address to receive different MOH media streams. C. A maximum of five media streams are allowed. D. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their MAC address to receive different MOH media streams. E. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their extension numbers to receive different MOH media streams. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 27 Refer to the exhibit.
How many SIP signaling transaction(s) took place in this SIP message exchange between two SIP user agents? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 F. 6 Correct Answer: C During the establishment, maintenance and termination of a SIP session, signaling messages are exchanged between the two SIP endpoints. There are two different kinds of signaling “conversations” that those messages take part in: transactions and dialogs. A transaction is a SIP message exchange between two user-agents that starts with a request and ends with its final response (it can also contain zero or more provisional responses in between). For example, during the termination of a SIP session, one user releases the call by sending a BYE request and the other party replies back with a 200 OK response. This message exchange is called a transaction. But what happens in the case of the INVITE request? The establishment of a SIP session starts basically with an INVITE request and is considered as completed upon the receipt of the ACK. In this case, the transaction starts with the INVITE request and ends with the 200 OK, so the ACK is not part of the transaction. The ACK can be considered as a transaction on its own. However, when the final response to an INVITE is not a 2xx response, then the ACK is considered as part of the transaction. A dialog is a complete exchange of SIP messages between two user-agents. That means that transactions are actually parts of a dialog. For example, in the case of a SIP session establishment, a dialog starts with the INVITE-200 OK transaction, continues with the ACK and ends with the BYE-200 OK transaction. The picture below depicts the dialog and transactions that take place during the establishment of a SIP session:Note: There can also be subsequent requests that belong to the same dialog, such as a BYE or a re-INVITE message. As out-of-dialog requests are considered messages such as an initial INVITE request for a new session or an OPTIONS message for checking capabilities. There are different SIP headers/parameters that identify the dialogs and transactions, and they will be analyzed in later posts. Reference: https://telconotes.wordpress.com/2013/03/13/sip-transactions-vs-dialogs/
QUESTION 28 In which call state does the Mobility soft key act as a toggle key to enable or disable Single Number Reach for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express SCCP IP phones? A. idle B. seized C. alerting D. ringing E. connected Correct Answer: A Pressing the Mobility soft key during the idle call state enables the SNR feature. This key is a toggle; pressing it a second time disables SNR. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cm eadm/cmesnr.html
QUESTION 29 A Collaboration engineer implemented Cisco EMCC between Cisco Unified CM clusters. The administrator has configured the bulk certificate management and exported the certificates to the SFTP server. After importing the certificates into each of the clusters, the administrator tested Cisco EMCC on a phone, but received “Login is unavailable (208)”. Which two steps resolve this error? (Choose two) A. Update the cluster IDs so that they are unique in the EMCC network. B. Enable the Allow Proxy service parameter on both clusters. C. Restart the Cisco CallManager and Cisco Tomcat Servers. D. Associate a user device profile for the user in the remote cluster. E. Consolidate the exported certificates and reimport into each cluster. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 30 Which two components are required when configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager for time-of-day routing? (Choose three.) A. Partition B. Time Period C. Time Schedule D. Time Zone E. Date Time Group Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 31 Which statement about G.722.1 codec support on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is true? A. It is always preferred by Cisco Unified Communications Manager over G.711. B. It is a high-complexity wideband codec. C. It operates at bit rates of 15.2 and 13.3 kb/s. D. It is supported for SIP and SCCP devices. E. It is supported for SIP and H.323 devices. Correct Answer: E G.722.1 is a low-complexity wideband codec operating at 24 and 32 kb/s. The audio quality approaches that of G.722 while using at most half the bit rate. As it is optimized for both speech and music, G.722.1 has slightly lower speech quality than the speech-optimized iSAC codec. G.722.1 is supported for SIP and H.323 devices.
QUESTION 32 Which statement about a virtual SNR DN-configured Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express-enabled Cisco IOS router is true? A. Virtual SNR DN supports either SCCP or SIP IP phone DNs. B. A virtual SNR DN is a DN that is associated with multiple registered IP phones. C. Calls in progress can be pulled back from the phone that is associated with the virtual SNR DN. D. The SNR feature can only be invoked if the virtual SNR DN is associated with at least one registered IP phone. E. A call that arrived before a virtual SNR DN is associated with a registered phone, and still exists after association is made, but cannot be answered from the phone. Correct Answer: E SCCP: Configuring a Virtual SNR DN To configure a virtual SNR DN on Cisco Unified SCCP IP phones, perform the following steps. Prerequisites Cisco Unified CME 9.0 or a later version. Restrictions Virtual SNR DN only supports Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone DNs. Virtual SNR DN provides no mid-call support. Mid-calls are either of the following: Calls that arrive before the DN is associated with a registered phone and is still present after the DN is associated with the phone. Calls that arrive for a registered DN that changes state from registered to virtual and back to registered. Mid-calls cannot be pulled back, answered, or terminated from the phone associated with the DN. State of the virtual DN transitions from ringing to hold or remains on hold as a registered DN. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cmeadm/cmesnr.html#38281
QUESTION 33 Where can a Cisco Unified CM administrator define Billing Application Server(s) for Call Detail Records? A. Cisco Unified Serviceability B. Service Parameters in Cisco Unified CM Administration. C. Enterprise Parameters in Cisco Unified CM Administration. D. Cisco Unified Reporting. E. Call Detail Records data collection internal is not a configurable parameter. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34 Which protocol is used by presence-enabled users in Cisco IM and Presence to control phones that are registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. AXL/SOAP B. CTI/QBE C. SIP/SIMPLE D. LDAP E. XMPP Correct Answer: B The CTI gateway provides desk phone control when users are configured for phone association mode. Proper installation calls upon information to specify CTI gateway server names, addresses, ports, and protocols on CUPS. Configured correctly, the CTI gateway enables users logging in to CUPC to reach the CTI gateway.
QUESTION 35 Which service, available only on the publisher server in a Cisco Unified CM cluster, is needed to enable a mixed mode cluster? A. Cisco Trust Verification B. Cisco Transport Layer Security C. Cisco CTL Provider D. Cisco Certificate Expiry Monitor E. Cisco Certificate Authority Proxy Function Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36 A Cisco Unified Contact Center Express manager wants to add database integration to the selfservice interactive voice response application. Which four types of licensing and database servers support this requirement? (Choose four.) A. The server must have enhanced licensing. B. The server must have premium licensing. C. A server running Sybase Adaptive Server is required. D. A server running Oracle is required. E. A server running Postgress SQL is required. F. A server running SAP SQL server is required. G. A server running Microsoft SQL server is required. H. The server must have standard licensing. Correct Answer: BCDG
QUESTION 37 Which two descriptions of +E.164 and enterprise alternate number for directory numbers in Cisco Unified communications Manager 10.6 are true(choose two) A. They cannot be advertised as PSTN fail over number B. They can be added into local partition C. If the number mask is not configured, the alternate number is invalid D. They cannot be added into local partition E. They are not eligible to be advertised using Global Dial Plan Replication F. If the number mask it is not configured, use DN as alternate number Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 38 A Cisco Unity Connection administrator receives a name change request from a voice-mail user, whose Cisco Unity Connection user account was imported from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What should the administrator do to execute this change? A. Change the user data in the Cisco Unity Connection administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco Unity Connection administration to push the change to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. B. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco Unity Connection administration to pull the changes from Cisco Unified CM. C. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco Unified CM administration to push the change to Cisco Unity Connection. D. Change the user profile from Imported to Local on Cisco Unity Connection Administration, then edit the data locally on Cisco Unity Connection. E. Change the user data in Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager separately Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39 Which route pattern is matched in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Version 11.0 when a user dials 2001? A. 200X configured with urgent priority B. 20[02-4]1 configured with urgent priority C. 200! Configured with urgent priority D. 20[*2-4]1 configured with urgent priorit E. 20[1-4]1 configured with nonurgent priority Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40 Which method allows administrators to determine the best match impedance on analog voice ports in Cisco IOS router without having to shut and no shut the ports? A. THL tone sweep B. original tone sweep C. ECAN test D. inject-tone local sweep E. remote loop Correct Answer: A THL tone sweep allows all available impedances for a single test call to a quiet termination point out to the PSTN. You do not need to manually disable ECAN on the voice port under test. The test feature switches impedances automatically for the tester. The test feature calculates the arithmetic mean ERL and reports the mean for each channel profile at each impedance setting. Then, at the end of the test, the feature specifies the best match impedance setting. This test requires minimal supervision. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip- voip/64282-impedance- choice.html
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