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Latest effective Cisco 400-101 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1
Which three message type are used for prefix delegation in DHCPv6?(Choose threE.
A. Solicit
B. Renew
C. Advertise
D. DHCP Discover
E. DHCPAck
F. DHCP Offer
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 2
Which option describes how a VTPv3 device responds when it detects a VTPv2 device on a trunk port?
A. It sends VTPv2 packets only
B. It sends a Special packet that contains VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets information.
C. It sends VTPv3 packets only.
D. It sends VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Refer to exhibit. Which statement is true about a valid IPv6 address that can be configured on tunnel interface0 ?
A. 2001:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address
B. 6to4 tunneling allows you to use any IPv6 address
C. 2002:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPV6 address
D. There is not enough information to calculate the IPv6 address
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which statement about passive interfaces is true?
A. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-state
protocol data units
B. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange of hello packets.
C. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as a not-so-stubby network.
D. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which two protocols exclude the source and destination IPaddresses from the application data stream?
(Choose two)
A. TFTP
B. NTP
C. SMTP
D. SSH
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6
From which component does an IS-IS router construct its link-state database?
A. LSAs
B. Hello packets
C. LSPs
D. SPTs
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
R1#sh ip eigrp top all IP-EIGRP Topology Table for AS (192.168.13.1) Codes: P – Passive, A – Active, U – Update, Q-
Query, R – Reply, r – reply Status, s – sia Status P 10.0.0.0/8, 1 successors, FD is 3586560, serno 8 via 192.168.1.5
(3586560/3074560), Serial0/0 P 192.168.100.0/24, 2 successors, FD is 409600, serno 5 via 192.168.13.3
(409600/128256), FastEthernet0/1 via 192.168.12.3 (435200/409600), FastEthernet0/0
Refer to the exhibit. Which statements about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true?
A. The metric installed into the route table is 128256
B. The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600
C. The metric installed into the route table is 435200
D. The Reported Distance for the Successor is 128256
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two)
A. low-latency queuing
B. congestion-avoidance algorithm
C. fast retransmission
D. IP service level agreements
E. fast start
F. fast recovery
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9
Which statements about PMTUD is true?
A. GRE tunnels use PMTUD to fragment data packets by default.
B. It increases the connection\\’s send MSS value to prevent fragmentation.
C. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets at the endpoint of a TCP connection
D. It is supported by TCP and UDP
E. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets traveling across a smaller MTU link between
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 10
Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.)
A. lt supports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention.
B. It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only.
C. lt supports unicast address families for 1Pv4 and 1Pv6
D. lt supports only one address family per instance.
E. It supports multicast address families for 1Pv4
F. lt supports multicast address families for 1Pv6
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11
Which two statements about SSM are true? (Choose two)
A. It requires IGMPv3 for source filtering.
B. It can work in conjunction with the ISM service.
C. It uses the group address range 233.0.0.0 – 233.255.255.255 by default
D. It is designed to support many-to-many applications within a PIM domain.
E. It uses (*, G) multicast routing entries to make forwarding decisions.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12
An NSSA area has two ABRs connected to Area 0. Which statement is true?
A. Both ABRs translate Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs
B. The ABR with the highest router ID translates Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs
C. No LSA translation is needed
D. Both ABRs forward Type-5 LSAs from the NSSA area to backbone area
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which three statements correctly describe the encoding used by NETCONF and RESTCONF? (Choose three)
A. RESTCONF uses JSON-encoded data
B. RESTCONF uses YAML-encoded data
C. RESTCONF uses XML-encoded data
D. NETCONF uses JSON-encoded data
E. NETCONF uses YAML-encoded data
F. NETCONF uses XML-encoded data
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. The route-map wau2sitc is being used for redistributing BGP routes into the eigrp 28 process.
Which option best describes the resulting redistribution of routes?
A. The deny, sequence 5 is preventing any routes from and a lag
B. A default routes is being redistributed with a metric and a tag
C. all routes are being redistributed with a metric and a tag
D. policy routing matches: 0 packets means that there are no matches and no routes are being redistributed
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which two statement about VPLS are true? (Choose two)
A. Split horizon is used on PE devices to prevent loops.
B. IP is used to switch Ethernet frames between sites.
C. Spanning tree is extended from CE to CE
D. VPLS extends a layer 2 broadcast domain.
E. PE routers dynamic associate to peers.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 16
Which two statements about IS-IS authentication are true ?(Choose two.)
A. Level 2 LSPs transmit the password encrypted inside the IS-IS PDU.
B. Area and domain authentication must be configured together.
C. Passwords can be configured on a per-interface basis.
D. If LSP authentication is in use , unauthorized devices can form neighbor adjacencies.
E. Lever 1 LSPs use the domain password.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
If the route to 10.1.1.1 is removed from the R2 routing table, which server becomes the master NTP server?
A. R2
B. the NTP server at 10.3.3.3
C. the NTP server at 10.4.4.4
D. the NTP server with the lowest stratum number
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two)
A. The priority queue is disabled
B. Queue 1 is served twice as fast as queue 2
C. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 1/3 of the available bandwidth
D. Queue 2 is served twice as fast as queue 1
E. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 2/3 of the available bandwidth
F. Queue 1 is allocated 2 percent of the available bandwidth and queue 2 is allocated 2 percent of the available
bandwidth
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 19
What are three of the key fields that define a unique NetFlow flow ( choose three)
A. Source MAC address
B. Cyclic Redundancy Check
C. Layer 3 protocol type
D. Type of service
E. Input logical interface
F. Canonical Format Identifier
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 20
Which three technologies can be used to implement redundancy for IPv6? (Choose three.
A. IPv6 NA
B. NHRP
C. HSRP
D. DVMRP
E. GLBP
F. IPv6 RA
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 21
Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type-3 LSAs? (Choose three
A. metric
B. link state
C. subnet mask
D. IP subnet
E. authentication type
F. external route tag
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 22
Which two operating modes does VPLS support? (Choose two)
A. Transport mode
B. Loose mode
C. VLAN mode
D. Strict mode
E. Port mode
F. Dynamic mode
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 23
Which IP SLA operation type is enhanced by lhe use of the IP SL.As Responder?
A. ICMP Echo
B. UDP Echo
C. DNS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which two values are required to implement an EIGRP named configurations? (Choose two)
A. address-family
B. virtual-instance-name
C. subnet-mask
D. router-id
E. process-id
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25
Which option is the Cisco recommended method to secure access to the console port?
A. Set the privilege level to a value less than 15
B. Configure a very short timeout (less than 100 milliseconds) for the port
C. Configure the activation-character command
D. Configure an ACL
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
When you implement PIR, which IP SLA probes is used to determine the MOS?
A. throughput
B. jitter
C. latency
D. packet loss
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Refer To the exhibit.
When pockets are transmitted from r1 to r2, where are they encrypted?
A. on the EO/0 interface on R1
B. on the outside interface
C. in the forwarding engine
D. in the tunnel
E. within the crypto map
F. on the EO/1 interface on R2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the output?
A. This router runs NTPv6
B. This router runs OSPFv3 and is not a DR
C. A directly connected router on another interface than this one will be able to successfully ping the link local address
of Gi2/0
D. This router runs EIGRpv6
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
which two conditions are required for tracking the interface IP routing state?(choose two)
A. The interface line protocol must be up
B. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disable on the interface
C. A VRF must be enabled on the interface
D. A known IP address must be configured on the interface
E. IP routing must be disabled on the interface
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 30
How long will the root bridge continue to send configuration BPDUs to notify all bridges to age out their MAC address
tables?
A. The max-age time
B. The forward delay + max-age time
C. The forward delay time
D. Three times the hello interval
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Which three options are the main security features in SNMPv3? (Choose three)
A. authentication
B. MIB persistence
C. message integrity
D. authorization
E. encryption
F. accounting
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 32
Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true
A. The FIB tables resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express
Forwarding is enabled.
B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table.
C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Company A have two remote sites, which are connected to a common ISP by BGP. At each site, company A is using
the same autonomous system number. Which BGP feature can you implement to enable routing between the two site?
A. allowas-in
B. AS path prepending
C. communities
D. peer groups
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which three criteria are used for stackwise election of a master switch?
A. lowest MAC address
B. Vl.AN revision number
C. longest uptime
D. user-selected priority
E. highest MAC address
F. IOS version number
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 35
External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs.
You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to
enable the routers to exchange routes?
A. Clear the EIGRP process
B. Change the router ID on R2.
C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship.
D. Change the corresponding loopback address.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about the given NetFlow configuration are true?(Choose two)
A. It supports both IPv4 and IPv6 flows.
B. It uses the default port to send flows to the exporter.
C. It supports only IPv6 flows.
D. It supports only IPv4 flows.
E. It supports a maximum of 2048 entres.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 37
Which command can you enter to allow a multicast-enabled router to advertise itself to the BSR router as PIMv2 c-RP?
A. ip pim autorp listener
B. ip pim send-rp-announce
C. ip pim rp-candidate
D. ip pim rp-address
E. ip pim send-rp- discovery
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
How can you configure this network so that customers can transparently extend their networks through the provider?
A. Configure eBGP peering among the CE routers
B. Configure OSPF peering between the CE and PE routers.
C. Configure eBGP peering between the CE and PE routers
D. Configure EIGRP OTP on the CE routers.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit.
Which BGP feature is being used?
A. graceful shutdown
B. graceful restart
C. PIC
D. fast session deactivation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.
When it attempted to register the EEM script, the device returned this error message. Which action can you take to
correct the problem?
A. Configure the end command at the end of the BACKUP EEM policy
B. Configure the event none command so that the event can be triggered manually
C. Configure the event action to run the applet
D. Configure the event manager run command to register the event
Correct Answer: C
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