[2018 Newest] Hot Microsoft Web Applications 70-487 Dumps Exam Files Update VCE Youtube Demo (Q1-Q15)

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Web Applications
Exam Name: Developing Windows Azure and Web Services
Exam Code: 70-487
Total Questions: 113 Q&As

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Hot Microsoft Web Applications 70-487 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
You are building an ADO.NET Entity Framework application.
You need to validate the conceptual schema definition language (CSDL), store schema definition language (SSDL), and mapping specification language (MSL) files.
Which Entity Data Model tool can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. EDM Generator (EdmGen.exe)
B. ADO.NET Entity Data Model Designer
C. Entity Data Model Wizard
D. Update Model Wizard
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
You are designing an ASP.NET Web API application.
You need to select an HTTP verb to allow blog administrators to moderate a comment.
Which HTTP verb should you use?
A. GET
B. POST
C. DELETE
D. PUT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC web application that contains the following HTML.
<table id= “customer” ></table>
You also have an ASP.NET Web API application that contains a call for retrieving customers.
You must send and retrieve the data in the most compact format possible.
You need to update the HTML for the customers table to contain data from the Web API application.
Which script segment should you use?
70-487 dumps
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are planning to migrate websites from IIS 6 to IIS 7.5.
You do not have access to SSH or a VPN.
You need to select a deployment tool to securely migrate the websites.
Which tool should you use?
A. RoboCopy
B. Web Deploy
C. Microsoft command-line FTP
D. xCopy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application.
Applications can be deployed to remote servers only by administrators who have elevated privileges. The administrators do not have access to Visual Studio 2012.
You need to select a deployment tool to deploy the application to remote servers for testing.
Which tool should you use?
A. Copy Web Site Tool
B. One-Click Publish
C. Publish Web Site Tool
D. Web Deployment Package
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries for a company.
The libraries must be shared across the company.
You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries.
What should you do? 70-487 dumps (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Install the NuGet.Feed Package.
B. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the system.webserver section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio 2012.
E. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
F. Add packages to the Packages folder.
G. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio 2012.
Correct Answer: BEFG

QUESTION 7
You develop an ASP.NET MVC application that is secured by using SSL. You are ready to deploy the application to production.
The deployment package must include the installation of the SSL certificate.
You need to configure the deployment package to meet the requirement.
What should you do?
A. Create a web publish pipeline target file with a custom web deploy target.
B. In the Package/Publish settings of the project, select the All Files in this project option.
C. Extend the CopyAllFilesToSingleFolder target in the project file.
D. In the Build Events settings of the project, configure a pre-build event to include the SSL certificate.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are developing a library to support multiple ASP.NET MVC web applications on a shared server. The library provides implementations of security algorithms.
If a problem with any of the security algorithms is discovered, a new version of the library must be created and deployed. Application downtime during the update must be minimized.
You need to ensure that the new version of the library will be used by all applications as soon as possible.
What should you do?
A. Build the web applications and include the security assembly as an embedded resource.
When an update is needed, copy the new assembly to the bin directory for the application.
B. Sign all assemblies in each application with the same key used to sign the security assembly.
When an update is needed, create a new key pair and re-sign all assemblies.
C. Build the security assembly as a netmodule in a shared location.
Use the assembly linker to merge the netmodule into the assemblies for the application.
When an update is needed, update the netmodule in the shared location.
D. Install the security assembly in the Global Assembly Cache (GAC).
When an update is needed, update the assembly in the GAC.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are developing a .NET application that uses the HttpClient type to call an ASP.NET Web API application. The API call returns a list of customers in JSON format and logs the results.
The URI for the API call is in a variable named address.
You need to make the API call without blocking.
Which code segment should you use?
70-487 dumps
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application has a page that updates an image stored in a database. Members of the EntityClient namespace are used to access an ADO.NET Entity Framework data model. Images and associated metadata are stored in a single database table.
You need to run a single query that updates an image and associated metadata in the database while returning only the number of affected rows.
Which method of the EntityCommand type should you use?
A. ExecuteNonQuery()
B. ExecutcScalar()
C. ExecuteDbDataReader()
D. ExecuteReader()
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are developing a new ASP.NET MVC application that does not have an existing database.
The requirements for the application are not complete, and the SQL data model will likely change.
You need to choose an approach to visually manage a data model.
Which approach should you use?
A. Physical First
B. Database First
C. Code First
D. Model First
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are designing an ASP.NET Web API application.
You need to select an HTTP verb to allow blog administrators to modify the text of a comment.
Which HTTP verb should you use?
A. GET
B. DELETE
C. POST
D. PUT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries that uses large data sets.
The libraries must be shared across an organization and distributed to several servers.
You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries for developer use.
What should you do? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add packages to the Packages folder.
B. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Install the NuGet.DataFeed Package.
E. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
F. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio.
Correct Answer: ACEF

QUESTION 14
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database. 70-487 dumps
You need to maintain data integrity including retrieving identical sets across reads in all situations that use transactions.
Which isolation level should you use?
A. Repeatable
B. Serializable
C. ReadUncommitted
D. ReadCommitted
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application is an order processing system that uses the ADO.NET Entity Framework against a SQL Server database. It has a controller that loads a page that displays customers.
Customers are filtered on Country and, if provided, on CompanyName.
You have an Entity Framework context named db.
The Customer class is shown below.
70-487 dumps
You need to execute a single deferred query to return the filtered list of customers.
Which code segment should you use?
70-487 dumps
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco CCIE 400-101 dumps, 400-101 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

The latest Cisco CCIE 400-101 exam dumps and exercises test questions and answers, These free exercises will help you improve 400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching test skills, We share 400-101 pdf for free to download and learn, and you can also watch 400-101 YouTube videos online! We share 40 real effective exam questions and answers for free if you want to get the full 400-101 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-101.html (Total questions:283 Q&A)->> updated throughout the year! Make sure you pass the exam easily!

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Latest effective Cisco 400-101 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which three message type are used for prefix delegation in DHCPv6?(Choose threE.
A. Solicit
B. Renew
C. Advertise
D. DHCP Discover
E. DHCPAck
F. DHCP Offer
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 2
Which option describes how a VTPv3 device responds when it detects a VTPv2 device on a trunk port?
A. It sends VTPv2 packets only
B. It sends a Special packet that contains VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets information.
C. It sends VTPv3 packets only.
D. It sends VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3

lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q1

Refer to exhibit. Which statement is true about a valid IPv6 address that can be configured on tunnel interface0 ?
A. 2001:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address
B. 6to4 tunneling allows you to use any IPv6 address
C. 2002:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPV6 address
D. There is not enough information to calculate the IPv6 address
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which statement about passive interfaces is true?
A. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-state
protocol data units
B. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange of hello packets.
C. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as a not-so-stubby network.
D. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which two protocols exclude the source and destination IPaddresses from the application data stream?
(Choose two)
A. TFTP
B. NTP
C. SMTP
D. SSH
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 6
From which component does an IS-IS router construct its link-state database?
A. LSAs
B. Hello packets
C. LSPs
D. SPTs
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
R1#sh ip eigrp top all IP-EIGRP Topology Table for AS (192.168.13.1) Codes: P – Passive, A – Active, U – Update, Q-
Query, R – Reply, r – reply Status, s – sia Status P 10.0.0.0/8, 1 successors, FD is 3586560, serno 8 via 192.168.1.5
(3586560/3074560), Serial0/0 P 192.168.100.0/24, 2 successors, FD is 409600, serno 5 via 192.168.13.3
(409600/128256), FastEthernet0/1 via 192.168.12.3 (435200/409600), FastEthernet0/0
Refer to the exhibit. Which statements about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true?
A. The metric installed into the route table is 128256
B. The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600
C. The metric installed into the route table is 435200
D. The Reported Distance for the Successor is 128256
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two)
A. low-latency queuing
B. congestion-avoidance algorithm
C. fast retransmission
D. IP service level agreements
E. fast start
F. fast recovery
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
Which statements about PMTUD is true?
A. GRE tunnels use PMTUD to fragment data packets by default.
B. It increases the connection\\’s send MSS value to prevent fragmentation.
C. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets at the endpoint of a TCP connection
D. It is supported by TCP and UDP
E. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets traveling across a smaller MTU link between
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 10
Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.)
A. lt supports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention.
B. It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only.
C. lt supports unicast address families for 1Pv4 and 1Pv6
D. lt supports only one address family per instance.
E. It supports multicast address families for 1Pv4
F. lt supports multicast address families for 1Pv6
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 11
Which two statements about SSM are true? (Choose two)
A. It requires IGMPv3 for source filtering.
B. It can work in conjunction with the ISM service.
C. It uses the group address range 233.0.0.0 – 233.255.255.255 by default
D. It is designed to support many-to-many applications within a PIM domain.
E. It uses (*, G) multicast routing entries to make forwarding decisions.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 12
An NSSA area has two ABRs connected to Area 0. Which statement is true?
A. Both ABRs translate Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs
B. The ABR with the highest router ID translates Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs
C. No LSA translation is needed
D. Both ABRs forward Type-5 LSAs from the NSSA area to backbone area
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which three statements correctly describe the encoding used by NETCONF and RESTCONF? (Choose three)
A. RESTCONF uses JSON-encoded data
B. RESTCONF uses YAML-encoded data
C. RESTCONF uses XML-encoded data
D. NETCONF uses JSON-encoded data
E. NETCONF uses YAML-encoded data
F. NETCONF uses XML-encoded data
Correct Answer: ACF


QUESTION 14lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q14Refer to the exhibit. The route-map wau2sitc is being used for redistributing BGP routes into the eigrp 28 process.
Which option best describes the resulting redistribution of routes?
A. The deny, sequence 5 is preventing any routes from and a lag
B. A default routes is being redistributed with a metric and a tag
C. all routes are being redistributed with a metric and a tag
D. policy routing matches: 0 packets means that there are no matches and no routes are being redistributed
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
Which two statement about VPLS are true? (Choose two)
A. Split horizon is used on PE devices to prevent loops.
B. IP is used to switch Ethernet frames between sites.
C. Spanning tree is extended from CE to CE
D. VPLS extends a layer 2 broadcast domain.
E. PE routers dynamic associate to peers.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 16
Which two statements about IS-IS authentication are true ?(Choose two.)
A. Level 2 LSPs transmit the password encrypted inside the IS-IS PDU.
B. Area and domain authentication must be configured together.
C. Passwords can be configured on a per-interface basis.
D. If LSP authentication is in use , unauthorized devices can form neighbor adjacencies.
E. Lever 1 LSPs use the domain password.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q17

If the route to 10.1.1.1 is removed from the R2 routing table, which server becomes the master NTP server?
A. R2
B. the NTP server at 10.3.3.3
C. the NTP server at 10.4.4.4
D. the NTP server with the lowest stratum number
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 18lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q18Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two)
A. The priority queue is disabled
B. Queue 1 is served twice as fast as queue 2
C. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 1/3 of the available bandwidth
D. Queue 2 is served twice as fast as queue 1
E. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 2/3 of the available bandwidth
F. Queue 1 is allocated 2 percent of the available bandwidth and queue 2 is allocated 2 percent of the available
bandwidth
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 19
What are three of the key fields that define a unique NetFlow flow ( choose three)
A. Source MAC address
B. Cyclic Redundancy Check
C. Layer 3 protocol type
D. Type of service
E. Input logical interface
F. Canonical Format Identifier
Correct Answer: CDE


QUESTION 20
Which three technologies can be used to implement redundancy for IPv6? (Choose three.
A. IPv6 NA
B. NHRP
C. HSRP
D. DVMRP
E. GLBP
F. IPv6 RA
Correct Answer: CEF


QUESTION 21
Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type-3 LSAs? (Choose three
A. metric
B. link state
C. subnet mask
D. IP subnet
E. authentication type
F. external route tag
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 22
Which two operating modes does VPLS support? (Choose two)
A. Transport mode
B. Loose mode
C. VLAN mode
D. Strict mode
E. Port mode
F. Dynamic mode
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 23
Which IP SLA operation type is enhanced by lhe use of the IP SL.As Responder?
A. ICMP Echo
B. UDP Echo
C. DNS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24
Which two values are required to implement an EIGRP named configurations? (Choose two)
A. address-family
B. virtual-instance-name
C. subnet-mask
D. router-id
E. process-id
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 25
Which option is the Cisco recommended method to secure access to the console port?
A. Set the privilege level to a value less than 15
B. Configure a very short timeout (less than 100 milliseconds) for the port
C. Configure the activation-character command
D. Configure an ACL
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 26
When you implement PIR, which IP SLA probes is used to determine the MOS?
A. throughput
B. jitter
C. latency
D. packet loss
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 27
Refer To the exhibit.lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q27

When pockets are transmitted from r1 to r2, where are they encrypted?
A. on the EO/0 interface on R1
B. on the outside interface
C. in the forwarding engine
D. in the tunnel
E. within the crypto map
F. on the EO/1 interface on R2
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the output?lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q28

A. This router runs NTPv6
B. This router runs OSPFv3 and is not a DR
C. A directly connected router on another interface than this one will be able to successfully ping the link local address
of Gi2/0
D. This router runs EIGRpv6
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 29
which two conditions are required for tracking the interface IP routing state?(choose two)
A. The interface line protocol must be up
B. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disable on the interface
C. A VRF must be enabled on the interface
D. A known IP address must be configured on the interface
E. IP routing must be disabled on the interface
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 30
How long will the root bridge continue to send configuration BPDUs to notify all bridges to age out their MAC address
tables?
A. The max-age time
B. The forward delay + max-age time
C. The forward delay time
D. Three times the hello interval
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 31
Which three options are the main security features in SNMPv3? (Choose three)
A. authentication
B. MIB persistence
C. message integrity
D. authorization
E. encryption
F. accounting
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 32
Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true
A. The FIB tables resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express
Forwarding is enabled.
B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table.
C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 33
Company A have two remote sites, which are connected to a common ISP by BGP. At each site, company A is using
the same autonomous system number. Which BGP feature can you implement to enable routing between the two site?
A. allowas-in
B. AS path prepending
C. communities
D. peer groups
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 34
Which three criteria are used for stackwise election of a master switch?
A. lowest MAC address
B. Vl.AN revision number
C. longest uptime
D. user-selected priority
E. highest MAC address
F. IOS version number
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 35
External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs.
You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to
enable the routers to exchange routes?
A. Clear the EIGRP process
B. Change the router ID on R2.
C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship.
D. Change the corresponding loopback address.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q36Which two statements about the given NetFlow configuration are true?(Choose two)
A. It supports both IPv4 and IPv6 flows.
B. It uses the default port to send flows to the exporter.
C. It supports only IPv6 flows.
D. It supports only IPv4 flows.
E. It supports a maximum of 2048 entres.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 37
Which command can you enter to allow a multicast-enabled router to advertise itself to the BSR router as PIMv2 c-RP?
A. ip pim autorp listener
B. ip pim send-rp-announce
C. ip pim rp-candidate
D. ip pim rp-address
E. ip pim send-rp- discovery
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 38lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q38How can you configure this network so that customers can transparently extend their networks through the provider?
A. Configure eBGP peering among the CE routers
B. Configure OSPF peering between the CE and PE routers.
C. Configure eBGP peering between the CE and PE routers
D. Configure EIGRP OTP on the CE routers.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q39Which BGP feature is being used?
A. graceful shutdown
B. graceful restart
C. PIC
D. fast session deactivation
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q40When it attempted to register the EEM script, the device returned this error message. Which action can you take to
correct the problem?
A. Configure the end command at the end of the BACKUP EEM policy
B. Configure the event none command so that the event can be triggered manually
C. Configure the event action to run the applet
D. Configure the event manager run command to register the event
Correct Answer: C

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