The latest Cisco CCIE 400-101 exam dumps and exercises test questions and answers, These free exercises will help you improve 400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching test skills, We share 400-101 pdf for free to download and learn, and you can also watch 400-101 YouTube videos online! We share 40 real effective exam questions and answers for free if you want to get the full 400-101 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-101.html (Total questions:283 Q&A)->> updated throughout the year! Make sure you pass the exam easily!
Latest effective Cisco 400-101 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which three message type are used for prefix delegation in DHCPv6?(Choose threE. A. Solicit B. Renew C. Advertise D. DHCP Discover E. DHCPAck F. DHCP Offer Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 2 Which option describes how a VTPv3 device responds when it detects a VTPv2 device on a trunk port? A. It sends VTPv2 packets only B. It sends a Special packet that contains VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets information. C. It sends VTPv3 packets only. D. It sends VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets. Correct Answer: D
Refer to exhibit. Which statement is true about a valid IPv6 address that can be configured on tunnel interface0 ? A. 2001:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address B. 6to4 tunneling allows you to use any IPv6 address C. 2002:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPV6 address D. There is not enough information to calculate the IPv6 address Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which statement about passive interfaces is true? A. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-state protocol data units B. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange of hello packets. C. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as a not-so-stubby network. D. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which two protocols exclude the source and destination IPaddresses from the application data stream? (Choose two) A. TFTP B. NTP C. SMTP D. SSH E. SNMP Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6 From which component does an IS-IS router construct its link-state database? A. LSAs B. Hello packets C. LSPs D. SPTs Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 R1#sh ip eigrp top all IP-EIGRP Topology Table for AS (192.168.13.1) Codes: P – Passive, A – Active, U – Update, Q- Query, R – Reply, r – reply Status, s – sia Status P 10.0.0.0/8, 1 successors, FD is 3586560, serno 8 via 192.168.1.5 (3586560/3074560), Serial0/0 P 192.168.100.0/24, 2 successors, FD is 409600, serno 5 via 192.168.13.3 (409600/128256), FastEthernet0/1 via 192.168.12.3 (435200/409600), FastEthernet0/0 Refer to the exhibit. Which statements about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true? A. The metric installed into the route table is 128256 B. The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600 C. The metric installed into the route table is 435200 D. The Reported Distance for the Successor is 128256 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two) A. low-latency queuing B. congestion-avoidance algorithm C. fast retransmission D. IP service level agreements E. fast start F. fast recovery Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9 Which statements about PMTUD is true? A. GRE tunnels use PMTUD to fragment data packets by default. B. It increases the connection\\’s send MSS value to prevent fragmentation. C. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets at the endpoint of a TCP connection D. It is supported by TCP and UDP E. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets traveling across a smaller MTU link between Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 10 Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.) A. lt supports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention. B. It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only. C. lt supports unicast address families for 1Pv4 and 1Pv6 D. lt supports only one address family per instance. E. It supports multicast address families for 1Pv4 F. lt supports multicast address families for 1Pv6 Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11 Which two statements about SSM are true? (Choose two) A. It requires IGMPv3 for source filtering. B. It can work in conjunction with the ISM service. C. It uses the group address range 188.8.131.52 – 184.108.40.206 by default D. It is designed to support many-to-many applications within a PIM domain. E. It uses (*, G) multicast routing entries to make forwarding decisions. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12 An NSSA area has two ABRs connected to Area 0. Which statement is true? A. Both ABRs translate Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs B. The ABR with the highest router ID translates Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs C. No LSA translation is needed D. Both ABRs forward Type-5 LSAs from the NSSA area to backbone area Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which three statements correctly describe the encoding used by NETCONF and RESTCONF? (Choose three) A. RESTCONF uses JSON-encoded data B. RESTCONF uses YAML-encoded data C. RESTCONF uses XML-encoded data D. NETCONF uses JSON-encoded data E. NETCONF uses YAML-encoded data F. NETCONF uses XML-encoded data Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 14Refer to the exhibit. The route-map wau2sitc is being used for redistributing BGP routes into the eigrp 28 process. Which option best describes the resulting redistribution of routes? A. The deny, sequence 5 is preventing any routes from and a lag B. A default routes is being redistributed with a metric and a tag C. all routes are being redistributed with a metric and a tag D. policy routing matches: 0 packets means that there are no matches and no routes are being redistributed Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15 Which two statement about VPLS are true? (Choose two) A. Split horizon is used on PE devices to prevent loops. B. IP is used to switch Ethernet frames between sites. C. Spanning tree is extended from CE to CE D. VPLS extends a layer 2 broadcast domain. E. PE routers dynamic associate to peers. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 16 Which two statements about IS-IS authentication are true ?(Choose two.) A. Level 2 LSPs transmit the password encrypted inside the IS-IS PDU. B. Area and domain authentication must be configured together. C. Passwords can be configured on a per-interface basis. D. If LSP authentication is in use , unauthorized devices can form neighbor adjacencies. E. Lever 1 LSPs use the domain password. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 17 Refer to the exhibit.
If the route to 10.1.1.1 is removed from the R2 routing table, which server becomes the master NTP server? A. R2 B. the NTP server at 10.3.3.3 C. the NTP server at 10.4.4.4 D. the NTP server with the lowest stratum number Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two) A. The priority queue is disabled B. Queue 1 is served twice as fast as queue 2 C. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 1/3 of the available bandwidth D. Queue 2 is served twice as fast as queue 1 E. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 2/3 of the available bandwidth F. Queue 1 is allocated 2 percent of the available bandwidth and queue 2 is allocated 2 percent of the available bandwidth Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 19 What are three of the key fields that define a unique NetFlow flow ( choose three) A. Source MAC address B. Cyclic Redundancy Check C. Layer 3 protocol type D. Type of service E. Input logical interface F. Canonical Format Identifier Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 20 Which three technologies can be used to implement redundancy for IPv6? (Choose three. A. IPv6 NA B. NHRP C. HSRP D. DVMRP E. GLBP F. IPv6 RA Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 21 Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type-3 LSAs? (Choose three A. metric B. link state C. subnet mask D. IP subnet E. authentication type F. external route tag Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 22 Which two operating modes does VPLS support? (Choose two) A. Transport mode B. Loose mode C. VLAN mode D. Strict mode E. Port mode F. Dynamic mode Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 23 Which IP SLA operation type is enhanced by lhe use of the IP SL.As Responder? A. ICMP Echo B. UDP Echo C. DNS D. HTTP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24 Which two values are required to implement an EIGRP named configurations? (Choose two) A. address-family B. virtual-instance-name C. subnet-mask D. router-id E. process-id Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25 Which option is the Cisco recommended method to secure access to the console port? A. Set the privilege level to a value less than 15 B. Configure a very short timeout (less than 100 milliseconds) for the port C. Configure the activation-character command D. Configure an ACL Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26 When you implement PIR, which IP SLA probes is used to determine the MOS? A. throughput B. jitter C. latency D. packet loss Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27 Refer To the exhibit.
When pockets are transmitted from r1 to r2, where are they encrypted? A. on the EO/0 interface on R1 B. on the outside interface C. in the forwarding engine D. in the tunnel E. within the crypto map F. on the EO/1 interface on R2 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the output?
A. This router runs NTPv6 B. This router runs OSPFv3 and is not a DR C. A directly connected router on another interface than this one will be able to successfully ping the link local address of Gi2/0 D. This router runs EIGRpv6 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29 which two conditions are required for tracking the interface IP routing state?(choose two) A. The interface line protocol must be up B. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disable on the interface C. A VRF must be enabled on the interface D. A known IP address must be configured on the interface E. IP routing must be disabled on the interface Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 30 How long will the root bridge continue to send configuration BPDUs to notify all bridges to age out their MAC address tables? A. The max-age time B. The forward delay + max-age time C. The forward delay time D. Three times the hello interval Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31 Which three options are the main security features in SNMPv3? (Choose three) A. authentication B. MIB persistence C. message integrity D. authorization E. encryption F. accounting Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 32 Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true A. The FIB tables resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled. B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table. C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled. D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33 Company A have two remote sites, which are connected to a common ISP by BGP. At each site, company A is using the same autonomous system number. Which BGP feature can you implement to enable routing between the two site? A. allowas-in B. AS path prepending C. communities D. peer groups Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34 Which three criteria are used for stackwise election of a master switch? A. lowest MAC address B. Vl.AN revision number C. longest uptime D. user-selected priority E. highest MAC address F. IOS version number Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 35 External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs. You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to enable the routers to exchange routes? A. Clear the EIGRP process B. Change the router ID on R2. C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship. D. Change the corresponding loopback address. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 Refer to the exhibit.Which two statements about the given NetFlow configuration are true?(Choose two) A. It supports both IPv4 and IPv6 flows. B. It uses the default port to send flows to the exporter. C. It supports only IPv6 flows. D. It supports only IPv4 flows. E. It supports a maximum of 2048 entres. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 37 Which command can you enter to allow a multicast-enabled router to advertise itself to the BSR router as PIMv2 c-RP? A. ip pim autorp listener B. ip pim send-rp-announce C. ip pim rp-candidate D. ip pim rp-address E. ip pim send-rp- discovery Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38How can you configure this network so that customers can transparently extend their networks through the provider? A. Configure eBGP peering among the CE routers B. Configure OSPF peering between the CE and PE routers. C. Configure eBGP peering between the CE and PE routers D. Configure EIGRP OTP on the CE routers. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39 Refer to the exhibit.Which BGP feature is being used? A. graceful shutdown B. graceful restart C. PIC D. fast session deactivation Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40 Refer to the exhibit.When it attempted to register the EEM script, the device returned this error message. Which action can you take to correct the problem? A. Configure the end command at the end of the BACKUP EEM policy B. Configure the event none command so that the event can be triggered manually C. Configure the event action to run the applet D. Configure the event manager run command to register the event Correct Answer: C
Share 40 Authentic Cisco CCIE 400-101 Exam questions and answers for free to help you improve your skills and master some of the knowledge you cover! If you want to pass the exam easily, please select the full 400-101 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-101.html (Total questions:283 Q&A) – >> updated throughout the year! Make sure you pass the exam easily!
The latest Cisco CCIE 400-051 exam dumps and exercises test questions and answers,These free exercises will help you improve 400-051 CCIE Collaboration test skills,We share 400-051 pdf for free to download and learn, and you can also watch 400-051 YouTube videos online! We share 40 real effective exam questions and answers for free if you want to get the full 400-051 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-051.html (Total questions:705 Q&A) ->> updated throughout the year! Make sure you pass the exam easily!
Latest effective Cisco 400-051 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit.Cisco unity connection site A has two locations and Cisco Unity connection Site B has one Location. Which protocol connect the location and servers together for messaging and replication? A. 1 SMTP 2 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 3 None B. 1 HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 2 SMTP 3 None C. 1 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 2 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 3 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP D. 1 SMTP 1 SMTP 1 SMTP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit.
A customer has two Cisco Unified Communication manager 9.X clusters that serve the same location. An engineer has attempted to set up Enhanced Location call admission control so that any call within a site between phones on the two clusters do not decrement the available bandwidth to and from that site. However, the real time monitoring tool currently shows bandwidth being used from the site to Hub_none. When a call is placed between phones at the site, which action must be taken to correct this situation? A. The link between clusters must be a type of inter-cluster trunk instead of a sip trunk. B. The hub_none location must have a link configuration to the phantom location. C. The device pool names must match between clusters. D. The Hub_none location must have a link configured to the shadow location. E. The SIP trunks should be changed to use the shadow location. Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3 Assume a 30-millisecond voice payload, 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end- of-frame flag, and the IP, UDP, and RTP headers are compressed to 2 bytes, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for eight VoIP calls that use a A. 729 codec over a multilink PPP link with cRTP enabled? B. 121.6 kb/s C. 92.8 kb/s D. 88.4 kb/s E. 83.2 kb/s F. 78.4 kb/s Correct Answer: D Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk652/tk698/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094ae2.shtml
QUESTION 4 In Cisco IOS routers that use low latency queuing, which algorithm is used to presort traffic going into the default queue? A. first-in, first-out B. last-in, first-out C. weighted round robin D. fair queuing E. random processing Correct Answer: D WFQ is a flow-based queuing algorithm used in Quality of Service (QoS) that does two things simultaneously: It schedules interactive traffic to the front of the queue to reduce response time, and it fairly shares the remaining bandwidth between high bandwidth flows. A stream of packets within a single session of a single application is known as flow or conversation. WFQ is a flow-based method that sends packets over the network and ensures packet transmission efficiency which is critical to the interactive traffic. This method automatically stabilizes network congestion between individual packet transmission flows.
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit.Which ds0-group option should you select to support automated number identification information collection on inbound calls for this digital T1 voice circuit? A. eandm-wink-start B. eandm-delay-dial C. eandm-delay-dial D. eandm-lmr E. eandm-fgd Correct Answer: E Because it can receive ANI information and sends DNIS info. But can\\’t send ANI. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/isdn/configuration/15-mt/vi-15-mt- book/vi-imp-t1cas-voip.html
QUESTION 6 Which configuration parameter defines whether or not the user portion of a directory URI is case sensitive on Cisco Unified Communications Manager 9.1 or later? A. URI Dialing Display Preference in Cisco CallManager Service Parameter B. URI Lookup Policy in Cisco CallManager Service Parameter C. URI Dialing Display Preference in Enterprise Parameters D. URI Lookup Policy in Enterprise Parameters E. The user portion of a directory URI is always case sensitive and cannot be changed. Correct Answer: D Explanation: Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports the following formats in the user portion of a directory URI (the portion before the @ symbol): Accepted characters are a-z, A-Z, 0-9, !, $, %, and, *, _, +, ~, -, =, \, ?, \, `, ,, ., /. The user portion has a maximum length of 47 characters. The user portion accepts percent encoding from %2[0-9A-F] through %7[0-9A-F]. For some accepted characters, Unified CM automatically applies percent encoding. See below for more information on percent encoding. The user portion is case-sensitive or case-insensitive depending on the value of the URI Lookup Policy enterprise parameter. The default value is case-sensitive. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/bat/9_1_1/CUCM_BK_C271A6 9D_00_cucm-bulk- administration-guide-91/CUCM_BK_C271A69D_00_cucm-bulk- administration-guide-91_chapter_01001110.html
QUESTION 7 Which two call processing features have a lower priority than the Do Not Disturb settings on a Cisco IP phone? (Choose two.) A. park reversion for a locally parked call B. hold reversion C. intercom D. pickup notification E. terminating side of a call back F. originating side of a call back Correct Answer: DE For the DND Ringer Off option, only visual notification gets presented to the device. For the DND Call Reject option, no notification gets presented to the device. For the terminating side of the call, Do Not Disturb overrides call back: When the phone that terminates the call uses DND Ringer Off, the Callback Available screen will be displayed on the phone after the terminating side goes off hook and on hook. When the phone that terminates the call has DND Call Reject enabled but the phone becomes available (goes off hook and on hook), a new screen will be presented to the originating device as ” has become available but is on DND-R”. Callback available notification will be sent only after the terminating side disables DND Call Reject.
QUESTION 8 Your customer reported that the Sync Agent service failed to start after a reinstallation of a Cisco this problem after you review these customer logs? A. Add “appadmin” application user in Cisco UCM and IM and Presence B. Add “appadmin” application user in Ciscon IM and Presence C. Add “appaduser” application user in Cisco UCM D. Add “appadmin” application user in Cisco UCM E. Add “appaduser” application user in Cisco UCM and IM and Presence Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 What is the maximum delay requirement, in milliseconds, for deploying Cisco Unity Connection servers in active/active pairs over different sites? A. 150 B. 200 C. 100 D. 250 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which option describes how you can show the same contacts in your Jabber for Windows on-premise client as you do on the corporate directory of your IP phone? A. Switch your Jabber client to use UDS instead of EDI. B. Switch your Jabber client to use EDI instead of UDS. C. Update your IMandP server to sync off of the same LDAP directory as your Cisco Unified Communications Manager. D. Add Jabber to your inbound/outbound firewall rules on your PC. E. Jabber can only pull directly from LDAP and cannot directly search the Cisco Unified Communications Manager user database. Correct Answer: A LDAP contact resolution — The client cannot use LDAP for contact resolution when outside of the corporate firewall. Instead, the client must use UDS for contact resolution. When users are inside the corporate firewall, the client can use either UDS or LDAP for contact resolution. If you deploy LDAP within the corporate firewall, Cisco recommends that you synchronize your LDAP directory server with Cisco Unified Communications Manager to allow the client to connect with UDS when users are outside the corporate firewall. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/Windows/9_7/JABW_BK_C4 C679C9_00_cisco-jabber-for- windows-97/JABW_BK_C4C679C9_00_cisco-jabber-for- windows-97_chapter_0111.html#CJAB_CN_C2733196_00
QUESTION 11 Where can a Cisco Unified CM administrator define Call Detail Records data collection interval (Choose two.) A. Cisco Unified Reporting B. Cisco Unified CM Administration Enterprise Parameters C. Cisco Unified Serviceability D. Cisco Unified CM Administration Service Parameters E. Call Detail Records data collection interval is not a configurable parameter. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 A collaboration engineer configures Cisco Unified CM location using G.711 and iLBC for each site. The bandwidth for each link is shown. Which two options represent the maximum concurrent number of calls supported by grand junction to Casper for each Codec? (Choose two.) A. 20 G.711 calls B. 18 G.711 calls C. 36 iLBC calls D. 42 iLBC calls E. 11 G.711 calls F. 51 iLBC calls Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 13 Which procedure uses H.225 messages to exchange H.245 Master-Salve Determination information? A. H.323 early media B. H.245 terminal capability set C. H 225 tunneling D. H.245 tunneling E. H.323 Fast Connect Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14 Which statement about high availability for XMPP federation in Cisco IM and Presence is true? A. A maximum of two Cisco IM and Presence nodes can be enabled for XMPP federation. B. Cisco IM and Presence load balances outbound requests across all nodes that are enabled for XMPP federation. C. Cisco IM and Presence load balances outbound requests across both nodes that are enabled for XMPP federation in a subcluster. D. The XMPP federation-enabled nodes should have different priorities and weights on the published DNS SRV for proper inbound request node selection. E. A single DNS SRV record that resolves to an XMPP federation-enabled node must be published on a public DNS server for inbound request routing. Correct Answer: B High availability for XMPP federation differs from the high availability model for other IM and Presence Service features because it is not tied to the two node sub-cluster model. To provide high availability for XMPP federation, you must enable two or more IM and Presence Service nodes in your cluster for XMPP federation; having multiple nodes enabled for XMPP federation not only adds scale but it also provides redundancy in the event that any node fails.
An IT engineer upgraded Cisco Unified Communications Manager to version 9.1.2. When accessing CLI of the server, this output is displayed. Which three actions must be taken to correct this issue? (Choose Three) A. From the recovery disk menu options, select option [F] to check and correct disk file system B. Login to DRS and perform Cisco Unified CM restore from the backup C. From the recovery disk menu option, select option [Q] to quit recovery program and reboot the virtual machine D. Download Cisco unified CM recovery iso, boot the virtual machine from it and verify disk partitioning layout E. Create a new virtual machine from Cisco ova template and create a fresh install with the Cisco Unified CM bootable iso F. Take the backup of the system with disaster recovery system G. From the recovery disk menu options, select option [A] to align the partitions of the virtual machines Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 16 A user has reported that when trying to access Visual Voicemail the following error is received “Unable to open application. Please try again later. If it continues to fail contact your administrator”. The collaboration engineer is working on the problem found on the following phone logs: CVMInstallerModule STATUS_install_cancelled STATUS_INSTALL)_ERROR [thread=installer MQThread][class=cip midp midletsuite installerModule][function=update status] Midlet install Canceled/ERROR…visual Voicemail How can this issue be resolved? A. Replace the sever name with the server IP on service URL field B. Eliminate the space in the service Name field C. Configure DNS on phone configuration so it can resolve server name D. Check the Enable checkbox on IP phone service configuration Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17 Which Cisco IM and Presence service is responsible for logging all IM traffic that passes through the IM and Presence server to an external database for IM compliance? A. Cisco Presence Engine B. Cisco Serviceability Reporter C. Cisco Sync Agent D. Cisco XCP Connection Manager E. Cisco XCP Message Archiver Correct Answer: E The Cisco Unified Presence XCP Message Archiver service supports the IM Compliance feature. The IM Compliance feature logs all messages sent to and from the Cisco Unified Presence server, including point-to-point messages, and messages from adhoc (temporary) and permanent chat rooms for the Chat feature. Messages are logged to an external Cisco-supported database.
QUESTION 18 Exhibit:Which two phone security functions are available to this Cisco IP phone? (Choose two.) A. Default Authentication of TFTP downloaded files using a signing key B. Encryption of TFTP configuration files using a signing key C. Encrypted call signalling but unencrypted call media D. Encrypted call media but unencrypted call signalling E. Encrypted call signalling and media F. Local trust verification on the Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 19 A CUCM engineer has deployed Type B SIP Phones on a remote site and no SIP dial rules were deployed for these phones. How Will CUCM receive the DTMF after the phone goes off- hook and the button are pressed? A. Each digit will be received by CUCM in a SIP NOTIFY message as soon as they are pressed B. The first digit will be received in a sip invite and subsequent digits will be received using NOTIFY message as soon as they are pressed. C. Each digit bill be received by CUCM in a SIP INVITE as soon as the dial soft key has been pressed. D. All digits will be received by CUCM in a SIP INVITE as soon as the dial soft key has been pressed Correct Answer: A Type-B IP telephones offer functionality based on the Key Press Markup Language (KPML) to report user key presses. Each one of the user input events will generate its own KPML-based message to Unified CM. From the standpoint of relaying each user action immediately to Unified CM, this mode of operation is very similar to that of phones running SCCP.Every user key press triggers a SIP NOTIFY message to Unified CM to report a KPML event corresponding to the key pressed by the user. This messaging enables Unified CM\\’s digit analysis to recognize partial patterns as they are composed by the user and to provide the appropriate feedback, such as immediate reorder tone if an invalid number is being dialed. In contrast to Type-A IP phones running SIP without dial rules, Type-B SIP phones have no Dial key to indicate the end of user input. A user dialing 1000 would be provided call progress indication (either ringback tone or reorder tone) after dialing the last 0 and without having to press the Dial key. This behavior is consistent with the user interface on phones running the SCCP protocol. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/5x/50dialpl.html#wp1090653 https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/87236/working-concept-sccp-sip-phones-and-dial-rules
QUESTION 20 Which Cisco Unified CM Application user is created by default and used by Cisco Unified CM Extension Mobility? A. CCMAdministrator B. EMSysUser C. TabSyncSysUser D. CCMSysUser E. CTIGWUser Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21 Which design restriction applies to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition clustering over the WAN deployment with extended round-trip times in Cisco Unified CM 9.1 and later releases? A. SIP and H.323 intercluster trunks are supported. B. Only SIP trunk is supported. C. SIP trunks and H.323 gateways are supported. D. A minimum of 1.544 Mb/s bandwidth is required for all traffic between any two nodes in the cluster. E. Only RSVP agents can be configured and registered to the SME cluster as media resources. Correct Answer: B Using only SIP trunks in the SME cluster allows you to deploy a “media transparent” cluster where media resources, when required, are inserted by the end or leaf Unified Communications system and never by SME. Using only SIP trunks also allows you to use extended round trip times (RTTs) between SME nodes when clustering over the WAN.
QUESTION 22 A Jabber for window user is on a call with cisco telepresence EX90 endpoint at the same location. During the call, the video on the jabber for Windows application was high quality but the video on the EX90 was choppy and slow. When the administrator checked the service rate on the EX90 it showed 2048 Kbps. Which two configuration changes can fix this problem? A. Lower the bit rate in the region configuration in communication manager between the endpoints B. Increase the location bandwidth for immersive video between the endpoints C. Enable BFCP in the SIP profile for the jabber client D. Enable H.263 on the EX90 E. Replace the camera for the jabber user with the precision HD USB camera F. Increase the bandwidth between the jabber video client and the EX90 Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 23 Refer to the exhibit.What does an outside caller hear when calling a user and forwarding to Cisco Unity Connection? A. The caller hears the Emergency greeting, followed by the voicemail greeting of the user they originally called. B. The caller hears the message “Emergency Message is not available,” followed by the voicemail greeting of the user they originally called. C. The caller hears the emergency greeting followed by the Opening Greeting message. D. The caller hears the Main Message greeting and then the call is disconnected. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24 Which codec complexity mode, when deployed on Cisco IOS routers with DSPs using the C5510 chipset, supports the most G.711 calls per DSP? A. Low B. Medium C. High D. Secure E. Flex Correct Answer: E The flex parameter allows the complexity to automatically adjust to either medium or high complexity depending on the needs of a call. For example, if a call uses the G.711 codec, the C5510 chipset automatically adjusts to the medium- complexity mode. However, if the call uses G.729, the C5510 chipset uses the high complexity mode
QUESTION 25 An engineer configuration EmCC needs to understand the priority order in which the home Cluster concatenates calling search space (CSS) when users login to the visiting Phones. Drag the CSS on the left to the correct priority order on the right. Not all options will be used. Priority 1 is the highest and priority 3 is the lowest. Select and Place:Correct Answer:
QUESTION 26 Which two rules apply to MMOH in SRST? (Choose two.) A. A maximum of three MOH groups are allowed. B. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their IP address to receive different MOH media streams. C. A maximum of five media streams are allowed. D. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their MAC address to receive different MOH media streams. E. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their extension numbers to receive different MOH media streams. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 27 Refer to the exhibit.
How many SIP signaling transaction(s) took place in this SIP message exchange between two SIP user agents? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 F. 6 Correct Answer: C During the establishment, maintenance and termination of a SIP session, signaling messages are exchanged between the two SIP endpoints. There are two different kinds of signaling “conversations” that those messages take part in: transactions and dialogs. A transaction is a SIP message exchange between two user-agents that starts with a request and ends with its final response (it can also contain zero or more provisional responses in between). For example, during the termination of a SIP session, one user releases the call by sending a BYE request and the other party replies back with a 200 OK response. This message exchange is called a transaction. But what happens in the case of the INVITE request? The establishment of a SIP session starts basically with an INVITE request and is considered as completed upon the receipt of the ACK. In this case, the transaction starts with the INVITE request and ends with the 200 OK, so the ACK is not part of the transaction. The ACK can be considered as a transaction on its own. However, when the final response to an INVITE is not a 2xx response, then the ACK is considered as part of the transaction. A dialog is a complete exchange of SIP messages between two user-agents. That means that transactions are actually parts of a dialog. For example, in the case of a SIP session establishment, a dialog starts with the INVITE-200 OK transaction, continues with the ACK and ends with the BYE-200 OK transaction. The picture below depicts the dialog and transactions that take place during the establishment of a SIP session:Note: There can also be subsequent requests that belong to the same dialog, such as a BYE or a re-INVITE message. As out-of-dialog requests are considered messages such as an initial INVITE request for a new session or an OPTIONS message for checking capabilities. There are different SIP headers/parameters that identify the dialogs and transactions, and they will be analyzed in later posts. Reference: https://telconotes.wordpress.com/2013/03/13/sip-transactions-vs-dialogs/
QUESTION 28 In which call state does the Mobility soft key act as a toggle key to enable or disable Single Number Reach for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express SCCP IP phones? A. idle B. seized C. alerting D. ringing E. connected Correct Answer: A Pressing the Mobility soft key during the idle call state enables the SNR feature. This key is a toggle; pressing it a second time disables SNR. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cm eadm/cmesnr.html
QUESTION 29 A Collaboration engineer implemented Cisco EMCC between Cisco Unified CM clusters. The administrator has configured the bulk certificate management and exported the certificates to the SFTP server. After importing the certificates into each of the clusters, the administrator tested Cisco EMCC on a phone, but received “Login is unavailable (208)”. Which two steps resolve this error? (Choose two) A. Update the cluster IDs so that they are unique in the EMCC network. B. Enable the Allow Proxy service parameter on both clusters. C. Restart the Cisco CallManager and Cisco Tomcat Servers. D. Associate a user device profile for the user in the remote cluster. E. Consolidate the exported certificates and reimport into each cluster. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 30 Which two components are required when configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager for time-of-day routing? (Choose three.) A. Partition B. Time Period C. Time Schedule D. Time Zone E. Date Time Group Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 31 Which statement about G.722.1 codec support on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is true? A. It is always preferred by Cisco Unified Communications Manager over G.711. B. It is a high-complexity wideband codec. C. It operates at bit rates of 15.2 and 13.3 kb/s. D. It is supported for SIP and SCCP devices. E. It is supported for SIP and H.323 devices. Correct Answer: E G.722.1 is a low-complexity wideband codec operating at 24 and 32 kb/s. The audio quality approaches that of G.722 while using at most half the bit rate. As it is optimized for both speech and music, G.722.1 has slightly lower speech quality than the speech-optimized iSAC codec. G.722.1 is supported for SIP and H.323 devices.
QUESTION 32 Which statement about a virtual SNR DN-configured Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express-enabled Cisco IOS router is true? A. Virtual SNR DN supports either SCCP or SIP IP phone DNs. B. A virtual SNR DN is a DN that is associated with multiple registered IP phones. C. Calls in progress can be pulled back from the phone that is associated with the virtual SNR DN. D. The SNR feature can only be invoked if the virtual SNR DN is associated with at least one registered IP phone. E. A call that arrived before a virtual SNR DN is associated with a registered phone, and still exists after association is made, but cannot be answered from the phone. Correct Answer: E SCCP: Configuring a Virtual SNR DN To configure a virtual SNR DN on Cisco Unified SCCP IP phones, perform the following steps. Prerequisites Cisco Unified CME 9.0 or a later version. Restrictions Virtual SNR DN only supports Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone DNs. Virtual SNR DN provides no mid-call support. Mid-calls are either of the following: Calls that arrive before the DN is associated with a registered phone and is still present after the DN is associated with the phone. Calls that arrive for a registered DN that changes state from registered to virtual and back to registered. Mid-calls cannot be pulled back, answered, or terminated from the phone associated with the DN. State of the virtual DN transitions from ringing to hold or remains on hold as a registered DN. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cmeadm/cmesnr.html#38281
QUESTION 33 Where can a Cisco Unified CM administrator define Billing Application Server(s) for Call Detail Records? A. Cisco Unified Serviceability B. Service Parameters in Cisco Unified CM Administration. C. Enterprise Parameters in Cisco Unified CM Administration. D. Cisco Unified Reporting. E. Call Detail Records data collection internal is not a configurable parameter. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34 Which protocol is used by presence-enabled users in Cisco IM and Presence to control phones that are registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. AXL/SOAP B. CTI/QBE C. SIP/SIMPLE D. LDAP E. XMPP Correct Answer: B The CTI gateway provides desk phone control when users are configured for phone association mode. Proper installation calls upon information to specify CTI gateway server names, addresses, ports, and protocols on CUPS. Configured correctly, the CTI gateway enables users logging in to CUPC to reach the CTI gateway.
QUESTION 35 Which service, available only on the publisher server in a Cisco Unified CM cluster, is needed to enable a mixed mode cluster? A. Cisco Trust Verification B. Cisco Transport Layer Security C. Cisco CTL Provider D. Cisco Certificate Expiry Monitor E. Cisco Certificate Authority Proxy Function Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36 A Cisco Unified Contact Center Express manager wants to add database integration to the selfservice interactive voice response application. Which four types of licensing and database servers support this requirement? (Choose four.) A. The server must have enhanced licensing. B. The server must have premium licensing. C. A server running Sybase Adaptive Server is required. D. A server running Oracle is required. E. A server running Postgress SQL is required. F. A server running SAP SQL server is required. G. A server running Microsoft SQL server is required. H. The server must have standard licensing. Correct Answer: BCDG
QUESTION 37 Which two descriptions of +E.164 and enterprise alternate number for directory numbers in Cisco Unified communications Manager 10.6 are true(choose two) A. They cannot be advertised as PSTN fail over number B. They can be added into local partition C. If the number mask is not configured, the alternate number is invalid D. They cannot be added into local partition E. They are not eligible to be advertised using Global Dial Plan Replication F. If the number mask it is not configured, use DN as alternate number Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 38 A Cisco Unity Connection administrator receives a name change request from a voice-mail user, whose Cisco Unity Connection user account was imported from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What should the administrator do to execute this change? A. Change the user data in the Cisco Unity Connection administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco Unity Connection administration to push the change to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. B. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco Unity Connection administration to pull the changes from Cisco Unified CM. C. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco Unified CM administration to push the change to Cisco Unity Connection. D. Change the user profile from Imported to Local on Cisco Unity Connection Administration, then edit the data locally on Cisco Unity Connection. E. Change the user data in Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager separately Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39 Which route pattern is matched in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Version 11.0 when a user dials 2001? A. 200X configured with urgent priority B. 20[02-4]1 configured with urgent priority C. 200! Configured with urgent priority D. 20[*2-4]1 configured with urgent priorit E. 20[1-4]1 configured with nonurgent priority Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40 Which method allows administrators to determine the best match impedance on analog voice ports in Cisco IOS router without having to shut and no shut the ports? A. THL tone sweep B. original tone sweep C. ECAN test D. inject-tone local sweep E. remote loop Correct Answer: A THL tone sweep allows all available impedances for a single test call to a quiet termination point out to the PSTN. You do not need to manually disable ECAN on the voice port under test. The test feature switches impedances automatically for the tester. The test feature calculates the arithmetic mean ERL and reports the mean for each channel profile at each impedance setting. Then, at the end of the test, the feature specifies the best match impedance setting. This test requires minimal supervision. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip- voip/64282-impedance- choice.html
Share 40 Authentic Cisco CCIE 400-051 Exam questions and answers for free to help you improve your skills and master some of the knowledge you cover! If you want to pass the exam easily, please select the full 400-051 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-051.html (Total questions:705 Q&A)->> updated throughout the year! Make sure you pass the exam easily!