Cisco CCIE 400-101 dumps, 400-101 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

The latest Cisco CCIE 400-101 exam dumps and exercises test questions and answers, These free exercises will help you improve 400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching test skills, We share 400-101 pdf for free to download and learn, and you can also watch 400-101 YouTube videos online! We share 40 real effective exam questions and answers for free if you want to get the full 400-101 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-101.html (Total questions:283 Q&A)->> updated throughout the year! Make sure you pass the exam easily!

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Latest effective Cisco 400-101 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which three message type are used for prefix delegation in DHCPv6?(Choose threE.
A. Solicit
B. Renew
C. Advertise
D. DHCP Discover
E. DHCPAck
F. DHCP Offer
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 2
Which option describes how a VTPv3 device responds when it detects a VTPv2 device on a trunk port?
A. It sends VTPv2 packets only
B. It sends a Special packet that contains VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets information.
C. It sends VTPv3 packets only.
D. It sends VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3

lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q1

Refer to exhibit. Which statement is true about a valid IPv6 address that can be configured on tunnel interface0 ?
A. 2001:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address
B. 6to4 tunneling allows you to use any IPv6 address
C. 2002:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPV6 address
D. There is not enough information to calculate the IPv6 address
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which statement about passive interfaces is true?
A. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-state
protocol data units
B. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange of hello packets.
C. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as a not-so-stubby network.
D. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which two protocols exclude the source and destination IPaddresses from the application data stream?
(Choose two)
A. TFTP
B. NTP
C. SMTP
D. SSH
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 6
From which component does an IS-IS router construct its link-state database?
A. LSAs
B. Hello packets
C. LSPs
D. SPTs
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
R1#sh ip eigrp top all IP-EIGRP Topology Table for AS (192.168.13.1) Codes: P – Passive, A – Active, U – Update, Q-
Query, R – Reply, r – reply Status, s – sia Status P 10.0.0.0/8, 1 successors, FD is 3586560, serno 8 via 192.168.1.5
(3586560/3074560), Serial0/0 P 192.168.100.0/24, 2 successors, FD is 409600, serno 5 via 192.168.13.3
(409600/128256), FastEthernet0/1 via 192.168.12.3 (435200/409600), FastEthernet0/0
Refer to the exhibit. Which statements about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true?
A. The metric installed into the route table is 128256
B. The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600
C. The metric installed into the route table is 435200
D. The Reported Distance for the Successor is 128256
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two)
A. low-latency queuing
B. congestion-avoidance algorithm
C. fast retransmission
D. IP service level agreements
E. fast start
F. fast recovery
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
Which statements about PMTUD is true?
A. GRE tunnels use PMTUD to fragment data packets by default.
B. It increases the connection\\’s send MSS value to prevent fragmentation.
C. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets at the endpoint of a TCP connection
D. It is supported by TCP and UDP
E. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets traveling across a smaller MTU link between
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 10
Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.)
A. lt supports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention.
B. It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only.
C. lt supports unicast address families for 1Pv4 and 1Pv6
D. lt supports only one address family per instance.
E. It supports multicast address families for 1Pv4
F. lt supports multicast address families for 1Pv6
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 11
Which two statements about SSM are true? (Choose two)
A. It requires IGMPv3 for source filtering.
B. It can work in conjunction with the ISM service.
C. It uses the group address range 233.0.0.0 – 233.255.255.255 by default
D. It is designed to support many-to-many applications within a PIM domain.
E. It uses (*, G) multicast routing entries to make forwarding decisions.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 12
An NSSA area has two ABRs connected to Area 0. Which statement is true?
A. Both ABRs translate Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs
B. The ABR with the highest router ID translates Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs
C. No LSA translation is needed
D. Both ABRs forward Type-5 LSAs from the NSSA area to backbone area
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Which three statements correctly describe the encoding used by NETCONF and RESTCONF? (Choose three)
A. RESTCONF uses JSON-encoded data
B. RESTCONF uses YAML-encoded data
C. RESTCONF uses XML-encoded data
D. NETCONF uses JSON-encoded data
E. NETCONF uses YAML-encoded data
F. NETCONF uses XML-encoded data
Correct Answer: ACF


QUESTION 14lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q14Refer to the exhibit. The route-map wau2sitc is being used for redistributing BGP routes into the eigrp 28 process.
Which option best describes the resulting redistribution of routes?
A. The deny, sequence 5 is preventing any routes from and a lag
B. A default routes is being redistributed with a metric and a tag
C. all routes are being redistributed with a metric and a tag
D. policy routing matches: 0 packets means that there are no matches and no routes are being redistributed
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
Which two statement about VPLS are true? (Choose two)
A. Split horizon is used on PE devices to prevent loops.
B. IP is used to switch Ethernet frames between sites.
C. Spanning tree is extended from CE to CE
D. VPLS extends a layer 2 broadcast domain.
E. PE routers dynamic associate to peers.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 16
Which two statements about IS-IS authentication are true ?(Choose two.)
A. Level 2 LSPs transmit the password encrypted inside the IS-IS PDU.
B. Area and domain authentication must be configured together.
C. Passwords can be configured on a per-interface basis.
D. If LSP authentication is in use , unauthorized devices can form neighbor adjacencies.
E. Lever 1 LSPs use the domain password.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q17

If the route to 10.1.1.1 is removed from the R2 routing table, which server becomes the master NTP server?
A. R2
B. the NTP server at 10.3.3.3
C. the NTP server at 10.4.4.4
D. the NTP server with the lowest stratum number
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 18lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q18Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two)
A. The priority queue is disabled
B. Queue 1 is served twice as fast as queue 2
C. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 1/3 of the available bandwidth
D. Queue 2 is served twice as fast as queue 1
E. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 2/3 of the available bandwidth
F. Queue 1 is allocated 2 percent of the available bandwidth and queue 2 is allocated 2 percent of the available
bandwidth
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 19
What are three of the key fields that define a unique NetFlow flow ( choose three)
A. Source MAC address
B. Cyclic Redundancy Check
C. Layer 3 protocol type
D. Type of service
E. Input logical interface
F. Canonical Format Identifier
Correct Answer: CDE


QUESTION 20
Which three technologies can be used to implement redundancy for IPv6? (Choose three.
A. IPv6 NA
B. NHRP
C. HSRP
D. DVMRP
E. GLBP
F. IPv6 RA
Correct Answer: CEF


QUESTION 21
Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type-3 LSAs? (Choose three
A. metric
B. link state
C. subnet mask
D. IP subnet
E. authentication type
F. external route tag
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 22
Which two operating modes does VPLS support? (Choose two)
A. Transport mode
B. Loose mode
C. VLAN mode
D. Strict mode
E. Port mode
F. Dynamic mode
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 23
Which IP SLA operation type is enhanced by lhe use of the IP SL.As Responder?
A. ICMP Echo
B. UDP Echo
C. DNS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24
Which two values are required to implement an EIGRP named configurations? (Choose two)
A. address-family
B. virtual-instance-name
C. subnet-mask
D. router-id
E. process-id
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 25
Which option is the Cisco recommended method to secure access to the console port?
A. Set the privilege level to a value less than 15
B. Configure a very short timeout (less than 100 milliseconds) for the port
C. Configure the activation-character command
D. Configure an ACL
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 26
When you implement PIR, which IP SLA probes is used to determine the MOS?
A. throughput
B. jitter
C. latency
D. packet loss
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 27
Refer To the exhibit.lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q27

When pockets are transmitted from r1 to r2, where are they encrypted?
A. on the EO/0 interface on R1
B. on the outside interface
C. in the forwarding engine
D. in the tunnel
E. within the crypto map
F. on the EO/1 interface on R2
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the output?lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q28

A. This router runs NTPv6
B. This router runs OSPFv3 and is not a DR
C. A directly connected router on another interface than this one will be able to successfully ping the link local address
of Gi2/0
D. This router runs EIGRpv6
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 29
which two conditions are required for tracking the interface IP routing state?(choose two)
A. The interface line protocol must be up
B. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disable on the interface
C. A VRF must be enabled on the interface
D. A known IP address must be configured on the interface
E. IP routing must be disabled on the interface
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 30
How long will the root bridge continue to send configuration BPDUs to notify all bridges to age out their MAC address
tables?
A. The max-age time
B. The forward delay + max-age time
C. The forward delay time
D. Three times the hello interval
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 31
Which three options are the main security features in SNMPv3? (Choose three)
A. authentication
B. MIB persistence
C. message integrity
D. authorization
E. encryption
F. accounting
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 32
Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true
A. The FIB tables resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express
Forwarding is enabled.
B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table.
C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.
D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 33
Company A have two remote sites, which are connected to a common ISP by BGP. At each site, company A is using
the same autonomous system number. Which BGP feature can you implement to enable routing between the two site?
A. allowas-in
B. AS path prepending
C. communities
D. peer groups
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 34
Which three criteria are used for stackwise election of a master switch?
A. lowest MAC address
B. Vl.AN revision number
C. longest uptime
D. user-selected priority
E. highest MAC address
F. IOS version number
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 35
External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs.
You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to
enable the routers to exchange routes?
A. Clear the EIGRP process
B. Change the router ID on R2.
C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship.
D. Change the corresponding loopback address.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q36Which two statements about the given NetFlow configuration are true?(Choose two)
A. It supports both IPv4 and IPv6 flows.
B. It uses the default port to send flows to the exporter.
C. It supports only IPv6 flows.
D. It supports only IPv4 flows.
E. It supports a maximum of 2048 entres.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 37
Which command can you enter to allow a multicast-enabled router to advertise itself to the BSR router as PIMv2 c-RP?
A. ip pim autorp listener
B. ip pim send-rp-announce
C. ip pim rp-candidate
D. ip pim rp-address
E. ip pim send-rp- discovery
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 38lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q38How can you configure this network so that customers can transparently extend their networks through the provider?
A. Configure eBGP peering among the CE routers
B. Configure OSPF peering between the CE and PE routers.
C. Configure eBGP peering between the CE and PE routers
D. Configure EIGRP OTP on the CE routers.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q39Which BGP feature is being used?
A. graceful shutdown
B. graceful restart
C. PIC
D. fast session deactivation
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q40When it attempted to register the EEM script, the device returned this error message. Which action can you take to
correct the problem?
A. Configure the end command at the end of the BACKUP EEM policy
B. Configure the event none command so that the event can be triggered manually
C. Configure the event action to run the applet
D. Configure the event manager run command to register the event
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco CCIE 400-051 dumps, 400-051 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

The latest Cisco CCIE 400-051 exam dumps and exercises test questions and answers,These free exercises will help you improve 400-051 CCIE Collaboration test skills,We share 400-051 pdf for free to download and learn, and you can also watch 400-051 YouTube videos online! We share 40 real effective exam questions and answers for free if you want to get the full 400-051 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-051.html (Total questions:705 Q&A) ->> updated throughout the year! Make sure you pass the exam easily!

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400-051 CCIE Collaboration – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccie-collaboration.html

Latest effective Cisco 400-051 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.Lead4pass 400-051 exam question-q1 Cisco unity connection site A has two locations and Cisco Unity connection Site B has one Location. Which protocol
connect the location and servers together for messaging and replication?
A. 1 SMTP 2 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 3 None
B. 1 HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 2 SMTP 3 None
C. 1 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 2 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 3 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP
D. 1 SMTP 1 SMTP 1 SMTP
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.Lead4pass 400-051 exam question-q2

A customer has two Cisco Unified Communication manager 9.X clusters that serve the same location. An engineer has
attempted to set up Enhanced Location call admission control so that any call within a site between phones on the two
clusters do not decrement the available bandwidth to and from that site. However, the real time monitoring tool currently
shows bandwidth being used from the site to Hub_none. When a call is placed between phones at the site, which action
must be taken to correct this situation?
A. The link between clusters must be a type of inter-cluster trunk instead of a sip trunk.
B. The hub_none location must have a link configuration to the phantom location.
C. The device pool names must match between clusters.
D. The Hub_none location must have a link configured to the shadow location.
E. The SIP trunks should be changed to use the shadow location.
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 3
Assume a 30-millisecond voice payload, 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end- of-frame flag, and the IP,
UDP, and RTP headers are compressed to 2 bytes, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue
for eight VoIP calls that use a
A. 729 codec over a multilink PPP link with cRTP enabled?
B. 121.6 kb/s
C. 92.8 kb/s
D. 88.4 kb/s
E. 83.2 kb/s
F. 78.4 kb/s
Correct Answer: D
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk652/tk698/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094ae2.shtml


QUESTION 4
In Cisco IOS routers that use low latency queuing, which algorithm is used to presort traffic going into the default
queue?
A. first-in, first-out
B. last-in, first-out
C. weighted round robin
D. fair queuing E. random processing
Correct Answer: D
WFQ is a flow-based queuing algorithm used in Quality of Service (QoS) that does two things simultaneously: It
schedules interactive traffic to the front of the queue to reduce response time, and it fairly shares the remaining
bandwidth between high bandwidth flows. A stream of packets within a single session of a single application is known
as flow or conversation. WFQ is a flow-based method that sends packets over the network and ensures packet
transmission efficiency which is critical to the interactive traffic. This method automatically stabilizes network congestion
between individual packet transmission flows.


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.Lead4pass 400-051 exam question-q5Which ds0-group option should you select to support automated number identification information collection on inbound
calls for this digital T1 voice circuit?
A. eandm-wink-start
B. eandm-delay-dial
C. eandm-delay-dial
D. eandm-lmr
E. eandm-fgd
Correct Answer: E
Because it can receive ANI information and sends DNIS info. But can\\’t send ANI.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/isdn/configuration/15-mt/vi-15-mt- book/vi-imp-t1cas-voip.html


QUESTION 6
Which configuration parameter defines whether or not the user portion of a directory URI is case sensitive on Cisco
Unified Communications Manager 9.1 or later?
A. URI Dialing Display Preference in Cisco CallManager Service Parameter
B. URI Lookup Policy in Cisco CallManager Service Parameter
C. URI Dialing Display Preference in Enterprise Parameters
D. URI Lookup Policy in Enterprise Parameters
E. The user portion of a directory URI is always case sensitive and cannot be changed.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports the following formats in the user portion of a directory
URI (the portion before the @ symbol):
Accepted characters are a-z, A-Z, 0-9, !, $, %, and, *, _, +, ~, -, =, \, ?, \, `, ,, ., /. The user portion has a maximum length
of 47 characters. The user portion accepts percent encoding from %2[0-9A-F] through %7[0-9A-F]. For some accepted
characters, Unified CM automatically applies percent encoding. See below for more information on percent encoding.
The user portion is case-sensitive or case-insensitive depending on the value of the URI Lookup Policy enterprise
parameter. The default value is case-sensitive.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/bat/9_1_1/CUCM_BK_C271A6 9D_00_cucm-bulk-
administration-guide-91/CUCM_BK_C271A69D_00_cucm-bulk- administration-guide-91_chapter_01001110.html


QUESTION 7
Which two call processing features have a lower priority than the Do Not Disturb settings on a Cisco IP phone? (Choose
two.)
A. park reversion for a locally parked call
B. hold reversion
C. intercom
D. pickup notification
E. terminating side of a call back
F. originating side of a call back
Correct Answer: DE
For the DND Ringer Off option, only visual notification gets presented to the device. For the DND Call Reject option, no
notification gets presented to the device. For the terminating side of the call, Do Not Disturb overrides call back:
When the phone that terminates the call uses DND Ringer Off, the Callback Available screen will be displayed on the
phone after the terminating side goes off hook and on hook.
When the phone that terminates the call has DND Call Reject enabled but the phone becomes available (goes off hook
and on hook), a new screen will be presented to the originating device as ” has become available but is on
DND-R”. Callback available notification will be sent only after the terminating side disables DND Call Reject.


QUESTION 8
Your customer reported that the Sync Agent service failed to start after a reinstallation of a Cisco this problem after you
review these customer logs?
A. Add “appadmin” application user in Cisco UCM and IM and Presence
B. Add “appadmin” application user in Ciscon IM and Presence
C. Add “appaduser” application user in Cisco UCM
D. Add “appadmin” application user in Cisco UCM
E. Add “appaduser” application user in Cisco UCM and IM and Presence
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 9
What is the maximum delay requirement, in milliseconds, for deploying Cisco Unity Connection servers in active/active
pairs over different sites?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 100
D. 250
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
Which option describes how you can show the same contacts in your Jabber for Windows on-premise client as you do
on the corporate directory of your IP phone?
A. Switch your Jabber client to use UDS instead of EDI.
B. Switch your Jabber client to use EDI instead of UDS.
C. Update your IMandP server to sync off of the same LDAP directory as your Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. Add Jabber to your inbound/outbound firewall rules on your PC.
E. Jabber can only pull directly from LDAP and cannot directly search the Cisco Unified Communications Manager user
database.
Correct Answer: A
LDAP contact resolution — The client cannot use LDAP for contact resolution when outside of the corporate firewall.
Instead, the client must use UDS for contact resolution. When users are inside the corporate firewall, the client can use
either
UDS or LDAP for contact resolution. If you deploy LDAP within the corporate firewall, Cisco recommends that you
synchronize your LDAP directory server with Cisco Unified Communications Manager to allow the client to connect with
UDS when users are outside the corporate firewall.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/Windows/9_7/JABW_BK_C4 C679C9_00_cisco-jabber-for-
windows-97/JABW_BK_C4C679C9_00_cisco-jabber-for- windows-97_chapter_0111.html#CJAB_CN_C2733196_00


QUESTION 11
Where can a Cisco Unified CM administrator define Call Detail Records data collection interval (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Reporting
B. Cisco Unified CM Administration Enterprise Parameters
C. Cisco Unified Serviceability
D. Cisco Unified CM Administration Service Parameters
E. Call Detail Records data collection interval is not a configurable parameter.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
A collaboration engineer configures Cisco Unified CM location using G.711 and iLBC for each site. The bandwidth for
each link is shown. Which two options represent the maximum concurrent number of calls supported by grand junction
to Casper for each Codec? (Choose two.)
A. 20 G.711 calls
B. 18 G.711 calls
C. 36 iLBC calls
D. 42 iLBC calls
E. 11 G.711 calls
F. 51 iLBC calls
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 13
Which procedure uses H.225 messages to exchange H.245 Master-Salve Determination information?
A. H.323 early media
B. H.245 terminal capability set
C. H 225 tunneling
D. H.245 tunneling
E. H.323 Fast Connect
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 14
Which statement about high availability for XMPP federation in Cisco IM and Presence is true?
A. A maximum of two Cisco IM and Presence nodes can be enabled for XMPP federation.
B. Cisco IM and Presence load balances outbound requests across all nodes that are enabled for XMPP federation.
C. Cisco IM and Presence load balances outbound requests across both nodes that are enabled for XMPP federation in
a subcluster.
D. The XMPP federation-enabled nodes should have different priorities and weights on the published DNS SRV for
proper inbound request node selection.
E. A single DNS SRV record that resolves to an XMPP federation-enabled node must be published on a public DNS
server for inbound request routing.
Correct Answer: B
High availability for XMPP federation differs from the high availability model for other IM and Presence Service features
because it is not tied to the two node sub-cluster model. To provide high availability for XMPP federation, you must
enable two or more IM and Presence Service nodes in your cluster for XMPP federation; having multiple nodes enabled
for XMPP federation not only adds scale but it also provides redundancy in the event that any node fails.


QUESTION 15Lead4pass 400-051 exam question-q15

An IT engineer upgraded Cisco Unified Communications Manager to version 9.1.2. When accessing CLI of the server,
this output is displayed.
Which three actions must be taken to correct this issue? (Choose Three)
A. From the recovery disk menu options, select option [F] to check and correct disk file system
B. Login to DRS and perform Cisco Unified CM restore from the backup
C. From the recovery disk menu option, select option [Q] to quit recovery program and reboot the virtual machine
D. Download Cisco unified CM recovery iso, boot the virtual machine from it and verify disk partitioning layout
E. Create a new virtual machine from Cisco ova template and create a fresh install with the Cisco Unified CM bootable
iso
F. Take the backup of the system with disaster recovery system
G. From the recovery disk menu options, select option [A] to align the partitions of the virtual machines
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 16
A user has reported that when trying to access Visual Voicemail the following error is received
“Unable to open application. Please try again later. If it continues to fail contact your administrator”. The collaboration
engineer is working on the problem found on the following phone logs:
CVMInstallerModule STATUS_install_cancelled
STATUS_INSTALL)_ERROR [thread=installer MQThread][class=cip midp midletsuite installerModule][function=update
status] Midlet install Canceled/ERROR…visual
Voicemail
How can this issue be resolved?
A. Replace the sever name with the server IP on service URL field
B. Eliminate the space in the service Name field
C. Configure DNS on phone configuration so it can resolve server name
D. Check the Enable checkbox on IP phone service configuration
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 17
Which Cisco IM and Presence service is responsible for logging all IM traffic that passes through the IM and Presence
server to an external database for IM compliance?
A. Cisco Presence Engine
B. Cisco Serviceability Reporter
C. Cisco Sync Agent
D. Cisco XCP Connection Manager
E. Cisco XCP Message Archiver
Correct Answer: E
The Cisco Unified Presence XCP Message Archiver service supports the IM Compliance feature. The IM Compliance
feature logs all messages sent to and from the Cisco Unified Presence server, including point-to-point messages, and
messages from adhoc (temporary) and permanent chat rooms for the Chat feature. Messages are logged to an external
Cisco-supported database.


QUESTION 18
Exhibit:Lead4pass 400-051 exam question-q18Which two phone security functions are available to this Cisco IP phone? (Choose two.)
A. Default Authentication of TFTP downloaded files using a signing key
B. Encryption of TFTP configuration files using a signing key
C. Encrypted call signalling but unencrypted call media
D. Encrypted call media but unencrypted call signalling
E. Encrypted call signalling and media
F. Local trust verification on the
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 19
A CUCM engineer has deployed Type B SIP Phones on a remote site and no SIP dial rules were deployed for these
phones. How Will CUCM receive the DTMF after the phone goes off- hook and the button are pressed?
A. Each digit will be received by CUCM in a SIP NOTIFY message as soon as they are pressed
B. The first digit will be received in a sip invite and subsequent digits will be received using NOTIFY message as soon
as they are pressed.
C. Each digit bill be received by CUCM in a SIP INVITE as soon as the dial soft key has been pressed.
D. All digits will be received by CUCM in a SIP INVITE as soon as the dial soft key has been pressed
Correct Answer: A
Type-B IP telephones offer functionality based on the Key Press Markup Language (KPML) to report user key presses.
Each one of the user input events will generate its own KPML-based message to Unified CM. From the standpoint of
relaying each user action immediately to Unified CM, this mode of operation is very similar to that of phones running
SCCP.Lead4pass 400-051 exam question-q19Every user key press triggers a SIP NOTIFY message to Unified CM to report a KPML event corresponding to the key
pressed by the user. This messaging enables Unified CM\\’s digit analysis to recognize partial patterns as they are
composed by the user and to provide the appropriate feedback, such as immediate reorder tone if an invalid number is
being dialed.
In contrast to Type-A IP phones running SIP without dial rules, Type-B SIP phones have no Dial key to indicate the end
of user input. A user dialing 1000 would be provided call progress indication (either ringback tone or reorder tone) after
dialing the last 0 and without having to press the Dial key. This behavior is consistent with the user interface on phones
running the SCCP protocol.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/5x/50dialpl.html#wp1090653
https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/87236/working-concept-sccp-sip-phones-and-dial-rules


QUESTION 20
Which Cisco Unified CM Application user is created by default and used by Cisco Unified CM Extension Mobility?
A. CCMAdministrator
B. EMSysUser
C. TabSyncSysUser
D. CCMSysUser
E. CTIGWUser
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 21
Which design restriction applies to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition clustering
over the WAN deployment with extended round-trip times in Cisco Unified CM 9.1 and later releases?
A. SIP and H.323 intercluster trunks are supported.
B. Only SIP trunk is supported.
C. SIP trunks and H.323 gateways are supported.
D. A minimum of 1.544 Mb/s bandwidth is required for all traffic between any two nodes in the cluster.
E. Only RSVP agents can be configured and registered to the SME cluster as media resources.
Correct Answer: B
Using only SIP trunks in the SME cluster allows you to deploy a “media transparent” cluster where media resources,
when required, are inserted by the end or leaf Unified Communications system and never by SME. Using only SIP
trunks also allows you to use extended round trip times (RTTs) between SME nodes when clustering over the WAN.


QUESTION 22
A Jabber for window user is on a call with cisco telepresence EX90 endpoint at the same location. During the call, the
video on the jabber for Windows application was high quality but the video on the EX90 was choppy and slow. When the
administrator checked the service rate on the EX90 it showed 2048 Kbps. Which two configuration changes can fix this
problem?
A. Lower the bit rate in the region configuration in communication manager between the endpoints
B. Increase the location bandwidth for immersive video between the endpoints
C. Enable BFCP in the SIP profile for the jabber client
D. Enable H.263 on the EX90
E. Replace the camera for the jabber user with the precision HD USB camera
F. Increase the bandwidth between the jabber video client and the EX90
Correct Answer: EF


QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.Lead4pass 400-051 exam question-q23What does an outside caller hear when calling a user and forwarding to Cisco Unity Connection?
A. The caller hears the Emergency greeting, followed by the voicemail greeting of the user they originally called.
B. The caller hears the message “Emergency Message is not available,” followed by the voicemail greeting of the user
they originally called.
C. The caller hears the emergency greeting followed by the Opening Greeting message.
D. The caller hears the Main Message greeting and then the call is disconnected.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24
Which codec complexity mode, when deployed on Cisco IOS routers with DSPs using the C5510 chipset, supports the
most G.711 calls per DSP?
A. Low
B. Medium
C. High
D. Secure
E. Flex
Correct Answer: E
The flex parameter allows the complexity to automatically adjust to either medium or high complexity depending on the
needs of a call. For example, if a call uses the G.711 codec, the C5510 chipset automatically adjusts to the medium-
complexity mode. However, if the call uses G.729, the C5510 chipset uses the high complexity mode


QUESTION 25
An engineer configuration EmCC needs to understand the priority order in which the home Cluster concatenates calling
search space (CSS) when users login to the visiting Phones.
Drag the CSS on the left to the correct priority order on the right. Not all options will be used.
Priority 1 is the highest and priority 3 is the lowest.
Select and Place:Lead4pass 400-051 exam question-q25Correct Answer: Lead4pass 400-051 exam question-q25-1

QUESTION 26
Which two rules apply to MMOH in SRST? (Choose two.)
A. A maximum of three MOH groups are allowed.
B. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their IP
address to receive different MOH media streams.
C. A maximum of five media streams are allowed.
D. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their
MAC address to receive different MOH media streams.
E. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their
extension numbers to receive different MOH media streams.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.

Lead4pass 400-051 exam question-q27

How many SIP signaling transaction(s) took place in this SIP message exchange between two SIP user agents?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
Correct Answer: C
During the establishment, maintenance and termination of a SIP session, signaling messages are exchanged between
the two SIP endpoints. There are two different kinds of signaling “conversations” that those messages take part in:
transactions and dialogs.
A transaction is a SIP message exchange between two user-agents that starts with a request and ends with its final
response (it can also contain zero or more provisional responses in between). For example, during the termination of a
SIP session, one user releases the call by sending a BYE request and the other party replies back with a 200 OK
response. This message exchange is called a transaction. But what happens in the case of the INVITE request? The
establishment of a SIP session starts basically with an INVITE request and is considered as completed upon the receipt
of the ACK. In this case, the transaction starts with the INVITE request and ends with the 200 OK, so the ACK is not
part of the transaction. The ACK can be considered as a transaction on its own. However, when the final response to an
INVITE is not a 2xx response, then the ACK is considered as part of the transaction. A dialog is a complete exchange of
SIP messages between two user-agents. That means that transactions are actually parts of a dialog. For example, in
the case of a SIP session establishment, a dialog starts with the INVITE-200 OK transaction, continues with the ACK
and ends with the BYE-200 OK transaction. The picture below depicts the dialog and transactions that take place during
the establishment of a SIP session:Lead4pass 400-051 exam question-q27-1Note: There can also be subsequent requests that belong to the same dialog, such as a BYE or a re-INVITE message.
As out-of-dialog requests are considered messages such as an initial INVITE request for a new session or an
OPTIONS
message for checking capabilities.
There are different SIP headers/parameters that identify the dialogs and transactions, and they will be analyzed in later
posts.
Reference: https://telconotes.wordpress.com/2013/03/13/sip-transactions-vs-dialogs/


QUESTION 28
In which call state does the Mobility soft key act as a toggle key to enable or disable Single Number Reach for Cisco
Unified Communications Manager Express SCCP IP phones?
A. idle
B. seized
C. alerting
D. ringing
E. connected
Correct Answer: A
Pressing the Mobility soft key during the idle call state enables the SNR feature. This key is a toggle; pressing it a
second time disables SNR.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cm eadm/cmesnr.html


QUESTION 29
A Collaboration engineer implemented Cisco EMCC between Cisco Unified CM clusters. The administrator has
configured the bulk certificate management and exported the certificates to the SFTP server. After importing the
certificates into each of the clusters, the administrator tested Cisco EMCC on a phone, but received “Login is
unavailable (208)”. Which two steps resolve this error? (Choose two)
A. Update the cluster IDs so that they are unique in the EMCC network.
B. Enable the Allow Proxy service parameter on both clusters.
C. Restart the Cisco CallManager and Cisco Tomcat Servers.
D. Associate a user device profile for the user in the remote cluster.
E. Consolidate the exported certificates and reimport into each cluster.
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 30
Which two components are required when configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager for time-of-day
routing? (Choose three.)
A. Partition
B. Time Period
C. Time Schedule
D. Time Zone
E. Date Time Group
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 31
Which statement about G.722.1 codec support on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is true?
A. It is always preferred by Cisco Unified Communications Manager over G.711.
B. It is a high-complexity wideband codec.
C. It operates at bit rates of 15.2 and 13.3 kb/s.
D. It is supported for SIP and SCCP devices.
E. It is supported for SIP and H.323 devices.
Correct Answer: E
G.722.1 is a low-complexity wideband codec operating at 24 and 32 kb/s. The audio quality approaches that of G.722
while using at most half the bit rate. As it is optimized for both speech and music, G.722.1 has slightly lower speech
quality than the speech-optimized iSAC codec. G.722.1 is supported for SIP and H.323 devices.


QUESTION 32
Which statement about a virtual SNR DN-configured Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express-enabled Cisco
IOS router is true?
A. Virtual SNR DN supports either SCCP or SIP IP phone DNs.
B. A virtual SNR DN is a DN that is associated with multiple registered IP phones.
C. Calls in progress can be pulled back from the phone that is associated with the virtual SNR DN.
D. The SNR feature can only be invoked if the virtual SNR DN is associated with at least one registered IP phone.
E. A call that arrived before a virtual SNR DN is associated with a registered phone, and still exists after association is
made, but cannot be answered from the phone.
Correct Answer: E
SCCP: Configuring a Virtual SNR DN
To configure a virtual SNR DN on Cisco Unified SCCP IP phones, perform the following steps.
Prerequisites
Cisco Unified CME 9.0 or a later version.
Restrictions
Virtual SNR DN only supports Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone DNs.
Virtual SNR DN provides no mid-call support.
Mid-calls are either of the following:
Calls that arrive before the DN is associated with a registered phone and is still present after the DN is associated with
the phone.
Calls that arrive for a registered DN that changes state from registered to virtual and back to registered.
Mid-calls cannot be pulled back, answered, or terminated from the phone associated with the DN.
State of the virtual DN transitions from ringing to hold or remains on hold as a registered DN.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cmeadm/cmesnr.html#38281


QUESTION 33
Where can a Cisco Unified CM administrator define Billing Application Server(s) for Call Detail Records?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability
B. Service Parameters in Cisco Unified CM Administration.
C. Enterprise Parameters in Cisco Unified CM Administration.
D. Cisco Unified Reporting.
E. Call Detail Records data collection internal is not a configurable parameter.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 34
Which protocol is used by presence-enabled users in Cisco IM and Presence to control phones that are registered to
Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. AXL/SOAP
B. CTI/QBE
C. SIP/SIMPLE
D. LDAP
E. XMPP
Correct Answer: B
The CTI gateway provides desk phone control when users are configured for phone association mode. Proper
installation calls upon information to specify CTI gateway server names, addresses, ports, and protocols on CUPS.
Configured correctly, the CTI gateway enables users logging in to CUPC to reach the CTI gateway.


QUESTION 35
Which service, available only on the publisher server in a Cisco Unified CM cluster, is needed to enable a mixed mode
cluster?
A. Cisco Trust Verification
B. Cisco Transport Layer Security
C. Cisco CTL Provider
D. Cisco Certificate Expiry Monitor
E. Cisco Certificate Authority Proxy Function
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 36
A Cisco Unified Contact Center Express manager wants to add database integration to the selfservice interactive voice
response application. Which four types of licensing and database servers support this requirement? (Choose four.)
A. The server must have enhanced licensing.
B. The server must have premium licensing.
C. A server running Sybase Adaptive Server is required.
D. A server running Oracle is required.
E. A server running Postgress SQL is required.
F. A server running SAP SQL server is required.
G. A server running Microsoft SQL server is required.
H. The server must have standard licensing.
Correct Answer: BCDG


QUESTION 37
Which two descriptions of +E.164 and enterprise alternate number for directory numbers in Cisco Unified
communications Manager 10.6 are true(choose two)
A. They cannot be advertised as PSTN fail over number
B. They can be added into local partition
C. If the number mask is not configured, the alternate number is invalid
D. They cannot be added into local partition
E. They are not eligible to be advertised using Global Dial Plan Replication
F. If the number mask it is not configured, use DN as alternate number
Correct Answer: BF


QUESTION 38
A Cisco Unity Connection administrator receives a name change request from a voice-mail user, whose Cisco Unity
Connection user account was imported from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What should the administrator do
to execute this change?
A. Change the user data in the Cisco Unity Connection administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco
Unity Connection administration to push the change to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User
page in Cisco Unity Connection administration to pull the changes from Cisco Unified CM.
C. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User
page in Cisco Unified CM administration to push the change to Cisco Unity Connection.
D. Change the user profile from Imported to Local on Cisco Unity Connection Administration, then edit the data locally
on Cisco Unity Connection.
E. Change the user data in Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager separately
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 39
Which route pattern is matched in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Version 11.0 when a user dials 2001?
A. 200X configured with urgent priority
B. 20[02-4]1 configured with urgent priority
C. 200! Configured with urgent priority
D. 20[*2-4]1 configured with urgent priorit
E. 20[1-4]1 configured with nonurgent priority
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 40
Which method allows administrators to determine the best match impedance on analog voice ports in Cisco IOS router
without having to shut and no shut the ports?
A. THL tone sweep
B. original tone sweep
C. ECAN test
D. inject-tone local sweep
E. remote loop
Correct Answer: A
THL tone sweep allows all available impedances for a single test call to a quiet termination point out to the PSTN. You
do not need to manually disable ECAN on the voice port under test. The test feature switches impedances automatically
for the tester. The test feature calculates the arithmetic mean ERL and reports the mean for each channel profile at
each impedance setting. Then, at the end of the test, the feature specifies the best match impedance setting. This test
requires minimal supervision.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip- voip/64282-impedance-
choice.html

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