[2018 Newest] Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Verified Answers Youtube Free Demo (Q1-Q30)

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0
Exam Code: 210-060
Total Questions: 235 Q&As

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Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Verified Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
The Voice engineer in your company need to change IP address destination on SIP-Trunk on near side?
A. reset trunk on near side
B. reset trunk on far side
C. reset trunk on far and near side
D. restart call manager service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the recommended maximum one-way latency for voice and video networks?
A. 100 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 300 ms
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the “?” button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings > User Preferences.
D. Select Settings > Device Configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF

Explanation:
The dial 9, 910, and 9001 dial peer configurations are shown below:
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
Here we see that dial peer 9 and 910 match the same destination pattern, but 9 will be used first. However, the port used should be 0/0/0:15 not 0/0/0:12.
210-060 dumps
QUESTION 5
An engineer receives a service ticket because a user cannot log into Cisco Unified CM User Options. Where can the engineer verify that the user account is active?
A. LDAP System Configuration
B. LDAP Directory
C. End User Configuration
D. LDAP Authentication
E. Route Plan Report
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A user reports that several IP phones in a single department are displaying a continuous “registering” message. Which fault domain should be investigated? 210-060 dumps
A. network router
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber node
C. network switch
D. IP phones
E. SIP gateway
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
User A notices echo on a call with user B. Both users are using Cisco VoIP phones. User B is using a headset, and user A is using a handset. What is the most likely source of the echo?
A. user A handset
B. user B headset
C. disabled echo cancellation on user A phone profile
D. disabled echo cancellation on user B phone profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What is needed to support SIP Early Media?
A. Media Termination Point
B. Transcoder
C. Annunciator
D. Conference Bridge
E. DSP
F. Route List
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which three characteristics are associated with voice? (Choose three.)
A. greedy
B. TCP retransmits
C. UDP priority
D. delay sensitive
E. drop insensitive
F. benign
G. benign or greedy
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 10
With GETVPN, if a key server is configured to use multicast as the rekey transport mechanism, then under which of these conditions will the key server retransmit the rekey messages?
A. It never retransmit the rekey messages
B. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from at least one group member
C. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from all group member
D. it only retransmit the rekey message when DPD to the group members fails
E. it always retransmit the rekey message
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
In an effort to proactively manage IP telephony infrastructure, a network engineer wants to review usage reports that provide top five users, top five calls, and traffic summary. Which option describes where this information can be retrieved using Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Navigate to Cisco Unified CM Administration > CDR Analysis and Reporting >System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
B. Navigate to Cisco Unified Operating System Administration > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
C. Navigate to Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Analysis and Reporting > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
D. Navigate to Cisco Unified Reporting > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
After getting reports that users cannot make calls out to the PSTN, a network administrator opens the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web page and begins to review route patterns. Why would the administrator look here when troubleshooting PSTN connectivity troubles?
A. A route pattern contains a list of gateways that can reach the PSTN.
B. A route pattern contains dial plan information for calling the PSTN.
C. A route pattern contains the necessary privileges for calling the PSTN.
D. A route pattern contains a list of SIP trunks that can reach the PSTN.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An engineer is adding a third-party video endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which third-party device type should be used when adding the system?
A. SCCP
B. SIP
C. MGCP
D. H.323
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
How can an administrator determine which codec is being used between two endpoints while a call is in progress?
A. Run the codec trace in Cisco Unified Communication Manager.
B. Use Cisco Unified Serviceability network trace.
C. Can only be seen in Cisco SDI traces.
D. Can only be seen in a sniffer trace.
E. Press the ? button twice on one of the IP phones.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection?
A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .csv
D. .pdf
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 18
An end user reports that conference calls are failing. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. voice gateways
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two tools can be used to measure the quality of a VoIP call? 210-060 dumps (Choose two.)
A. QoS configuration tool
B. mean opinion score tool
C. bulk administration tool
D. jitter compensation tool
E. rFactor tool
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 20
Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Bulk administration tool
B. LDAP
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL
D. Outlook
E. Presence
F. Cisco Compatible Extensions
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 21
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager device report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. Gateway utilization
B. Gateway summary
C. Gateway detail
D. Gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which three choices are functions or features of Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. video-enabled messaging through converged networks
B. text-to-speech, which allows access to Exchange emails from a telephone
C. voice-enabled message navigation
D. voice-enabled dialing to external users
E. automated attendant capabilities
F. automated call rerouting to agents through round robin, longest idle, or broadcast
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 23
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.)
A. It requires the use of schedules for backups.
B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password.
C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted.
D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out.
E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported.
F. SSL is used between the master and local agents.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 25
Which option is added number phone configuration is Cisco Unified Communicator Manager to add conference bridge resource to the phone
A. Media Resource Group
B. Conference Resource list
C. Conference Bridge
D. Media Resource Group List
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
End user is on a cisco telepresence session with remote participant and can control the camera at the remote endpoint. Which feature is underlying?
A. FECC
B. DTMF
C. FEC
D. PIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A voice engineer has installed an XML-based phone application from a third party and subscribed a user’s 7945 IP phone to the application. Which action does the user take to launch the new service on the IP phone?
A. Select the Applications button on the 7945 IP phone.
B. Select Settings > Applications.
C. Select Settings > Network > Applications.
D. Select the Services button on the 7945 IP phone.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two explanations of DTMF dialing are true? (Choose two.)
A. DTMF dialing consists of simultaneous voice-band tones generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
B. The use of DTMF enables support for advanced telephony services.
C. DTMF dialing uses INVITE messages to signal when the first digit is pressed in a new call.
D. DTMF dialing consists of a simultaneous digital-band pulse generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
A Cisco administrator is asked to set up two new end users in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. Which two fields are required? 210-060 dumps (Choose two.)
A. First Name
B. User ID
C. PIN
D. Telephone Number
E. Password
F. Last Name
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
A user reports that during calls they hear excessive hissing when neither party is talking.
Which option is one cause of this noise?
A. QoS
B. LoPS
C. VAD
D. EPL
E. SRST
Correct Answer: C

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[2018 Newest] 100% Pass Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-718 Dumps Exam Practice Update Youtube Demo (Q1-Q30)

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Dynamics 365
Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service
Exam Code: MB2-718
Total Questions: 90 Q&As

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Microsoft Dynamics 365 Real MB2-718 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
You attempt to delete a queue in Microsoft Dynamics 365. You are not able to delete the queue.
What are two possible reasons why you cannot delete the queue? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The queue contains a queue item.
B. The queue has a designated email address.
C. The queue is referenced by a routing rule.
D. The queue has a team owner.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
You create a service level agreement (SLA) for cases where the case priority is critical. The SLA must display a warning after 15 minutes and fail after 30 minutes.
You create a normal priority case at 16:00. You change the priority to critical at 16:15. If no action is taken, how many minutes will elapse before the SLA fails?
A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 145 minutes
D. 60 minutes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two actions can you perform by using entitlement channels? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Specify the number of customers allowed to use each channel ___
B. Restrict users from creating cases by using specified channels.
C. Restrict the number of child cases allowed for each parent case with a specified channel.
D. Specify the number of cases allowed for each channel.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment. You implement Field Service. You need to update a work order to indicate that you are traveling to the client.
Which field in the Field Service mobile app should you update?
A. Booking Status
B. Start Time
C. Actual Arrival Time
D. System Status
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You use the Field Service application.
You need to track users and equipment that are available for scheduling.
Which resource type should you use?
A. Bookable Resource
B. Warehouse Resource
C. Resource Group
D. Web Resource
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two statements regarding the Unified Service Desk (USD) debugger are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Yellow highlights are used to indicate a warning regarding an action call.
B. Red highlights are used to indicate the failure of an event
C. You can view a replacement parameter list.
D. You can run an action call on demand.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
Which two statements regarding Microsoft Power BI dashboards are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Visualizations can display up to 5,000 records.
B. You can use Microsoft One Drive for Business as a data connection.
C. You can examine data by using natural language capabilities.
D. You can add up to six visualizations.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
You need to search for a specific knowledge base article by number. MB2-718 dumps
Which two options can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Service Area
B. Relevance Search
C. Categorized Search
D. Article Template Quick Find
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
You use the interactive service hub for your daily work. You identify a knowledge base article that can assist with an open case for a customer.
You need to send the article to the customer. What should you do?
A. Create a new email record and set the regarding object to the knowledge base article.
B. Use Microsoft Skype for Business to send a link to the customer.
C. Send a link to the customer by using Email a link.
D. Search the knowledge base from within the case, and use the Link Article and Email Content option.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A user selects a case from a queue and studies the queue item details for the case. Which two data points are displayed? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. the user who owns the case
B. the time spent working on the case
C. the queue the case is related to
D. the user working on the case
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
Which queue type is created when you add a user to Dynamics 365?
A. System
B. Personal
C. Escalation
D. Shared
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You manage a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment You need to enable editable grids for an entity. What should you do?
A. Customize the entity.
B. Use the System Customizer tool.
C. Configure the Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook add-in.
D. Modify the system settings.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which three of the following are valid survey response actions?
A. Restart Survey
B. Toggle Visibility
C. Auto-Populate
D. End Survey
E. Chain Survey
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 14
The time period for a goal was not set correctly. You need to ensure that a user can correct the goal. What should you do?
A. Change the manager for the goal.
B. Add a new goal metric.
C. Add a child goal with the correct time period that is owned by the user.
D. Add a parent goal with the correct time period that is owned by the user.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You create a Voice of the Customer survey.
You need to configure an automatic response each time a customer completes the survey.
Which feature or component should you use?
A. rule
B. piped data
C. linked question
D. Microsoft Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
You have the Customer service representative security role. You apply a filter to the active case system view. You need to save the view. What should you do? MB2-718 dumps
A. Create a personal view.
B. Save the filtered view.
C. Pin the view.
D. Use Save As and give the view a new name.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
You create and activate an entitlement. The start and end dates for the entitlement are in the future. What is the status of the entitlement?
A. Not started
B. On Hold
C. Pending
D. Waiting
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
You release an item from a queue.
What is the outcome?
A. The current routing rule is applied.
B. The value from the Worked By field is removed.
C. The record is returned to the originating queue.
D. The record is removed from the current queue and placed in the user’s personal queue.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Your organization uses enhanced service level agreements (SLA’s).
You need to create a view that displays the SLA failure and succeeded time for data related to a case.
Which entity should you use to select the fields?
A. SLA
B. enhanced SLA C
C. SLA KPI Instance
D. SLA Item
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
What are Field Service Agreements?
A. frameworks for automatically generating work orders and invoices
B. methods to help users verify what the customers are eligible for and create cases for customers
C. methods to allow users to organize, prioritize, and monitor the progress of their work
D. deflations for the level of service or support that your organization agrees to offer to a customer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
You have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment. You implement Field Service. You need to update a work order to indicate that you are traveling to the client.
Which field in the Field Service mobile app should you update?
A. Booking Status
B. Start Time
C. Actual Arrival Time
D. System Status
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
You use the Field Service application.
You need to track users and equipment that are available for scheduling.
Which resource type should you use?
A. Bookable Resource
B. Warehouse Resource
C. Resource Group
D. Web Resource
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which two statements regarding the Unified Service Desk (USD) debugger are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Yellow highlights are used to indicate a warning regarding an action call.
B. Red highlights are used to indicate the failure of an event
C. You can view a replacement parameter list.
D. You can run an action call on demand.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
Which two statements regarding Microsoft Power BI dashboards are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Visualizations can display up to 5,000 records.
B. You can use Microsoft One Drive for Business as a data connection.
C. You can examine data by using natural language capabilities.
D. You can add up to six visualizations.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 25
You need to search for a specific knowledge base article by number.
Which two options can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Service Area
B. Relevance Search
C. Categorized Search
D. Article Template Quick Find
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 26
You use the interactive service hub for your daily work. You identify a knowledge base article that can assist with an open case for a customer.
You need to send the article to the customer. What should you do?
A. Create a new email record and set the regarding object to the knowledge base article.
B. Use Microsoft Skype for Business to send a link to the customer.
C. Send a link to the customer by using Email a link.
D. Search the knowledge base from within the case, and use the Link Article and Email Content option.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
A user selects a case from a queue and studies the queue item details for the case. MB2-718 dumps Which two data points are displayed? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. the user who owns the case
B. the time spent working on the case
C. the queue the case is related to
D. the user working on the case
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 28
Which queue type is created when you add a user to Dynamics 365?
A. System
B. Personal
C. Escalation
D. Shared
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
You manage a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment You need to enable editable grids for an entity. What should you do?
A. Customize the entity.
B. Use the System Customizer tool.
C. Configure the Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook add-in.
D. Modify the system settings.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
The time period for a goal was not set correctly. You need to ensure that a user can correct the goal. What should you do?
A. Change the manager for the goal.
B. Add a new goal metric.
C. Add a child goal with the correct time period that is owned by the user.
D. Add a parent goal with the correct time period that is owned by the user.
Correct Answer: A

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[2018 Newest] Best CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 Dumps Exam Training Resources Free Update Youtube Shared (Q1-Q40)

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: Security+
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
Exam Code: SY0-401
Total Questions: 1776 Q&As

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Best CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q40)

QUESTION 1
Ann is the data owner of financial records for a company. She has requested that she have the ability to assign read and write privileges to her folders. The network administrator is tasked with setting up the initial access control system and handing Ann’s administrative capabilities. Which of the following systems should be deployed?
A. Role-based
B. Mandatory
C. Discretionary
D. Rule-based
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A password history value of three means which of the following?
A. Three different passwords are used before one can be reused.
B. A password cannot be reused once changed for three years.
C. After three hours a password must be re-entered to continue.
D. The server stores passwords in the database for three days.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A security administrator has installed a new KDC for the corporate environment. Which of the following authentication protocols is the security administrator planning to implement across the organization?
A. LDAP
B. RADIUS
C. Kerberos
D. XTACACS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A system administrator is using a packet sniffer to troubleshoot remote authentication. The administrator detects a device trying to communicate to TCP port 49. Which of the following authentication methods is MOST likely being attempted?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. Kerberos
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following authentication services requires the use of a ticket-granting ticket (TGT) server in order to complete the authentication process?
A. TACACS+
B. Secure LDAP
C. RADIUS
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
An organization has introduced token-based authentication to system administrators due to risk of password compromise. The tokens have a set of numbers that automatically change every 30 seconds. Which of the following type of authentication mechanism is this?
A. TOTP
B. Smart card
C. CHAP
D. HOTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
The security department has implemented a new laptop encryption product in the environment. The product requires one user name and password at the time of boot up and also another password after the operating system has finished loading. This setup is using which of the following authentication types?
A. Two-factor authentication
B. Single sign-on
C. Multifactor authentication
D. Single factor authentication
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A company hired Joe, an accountant. The IT administrator will need to create a new account for Joe. The company uses groups for ease of management and administration of user accounts. SY0-401 dumps
Joe will need network access to all directories, folders and files within the accounting department.
Which of the following configurations will meet the requirements?
A. Create a user account and assign the user account to the accounting group.
B. Create an account with role-based access control for accounting.
C. Create a user account with password reset and notify Joe of the account creation.
D. Create two accounts: a user account and an account with full network administration rights.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following access controls enforces permissions based on data labeling at specific levels?
A. Mandatory access control
B. Separation of duties access control
C. Discretionary access control
D. Role based access control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A system administrator needs to ensure that certain departments have more restrictive controls to their shared folders than other departments. Which of the following security controls would be implemented to restrict those departments?
A. User assigned privileges
B. Password disablement
C. Multiple account creation
D. Group based privileges
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Ann was reviewing her company’s event logs and observed several instances of GUEST accessing the company print server, file server, and archive database. As she continued to investigate, Ann noticed that it seemed to happen at random intervals throughout the day, but mostly after the weekly automated patching and often logging in at the same time. Which of the following would BEST mitigate this issue?
A. Enabling time of day restrictions
B. Disabling unnecessary services
C. Disabling unnecessary accounts
D. Rogue machine detection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator implements SELinux on a production web server. After implementing this, the web server no longer serves up files from users’ home directories. To rectify this, the administrator creates a new policy as the root user. This is an example of which of the following? (Select TWO).
A. Enforcing SELinux in the OS kernel is role-based access control
B. Enforcing SELinux in the OS kernel is rule-based access control
C. The policy added by the root user is mandatory access control
D. Enforcing SELinux in the OS kernel is mandatory access control
E. The policy added by the root user is role-based access control
F. The policy added by the root user is rule-based access control
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 13
Jane, a security administrator, has been tasked with explaining authentication services to the company’s management team. The company runs an active directory infrastructure. Which of the following solutions BEST relates to the host authentication protocol within the company’s environment?
A. Kerberos
B. Least privilege
C. TACACS+
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is an example of multifactor authentication?
A. Credit card and PIN
B. Username and password
C. Password and PIN
D. Fingerprint and retina scan
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following should be used to authenticate and log connections from wireless users connecting with EAP-TLS?
A. Kerberos
B. LDAP
C. SAML
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which of the following authentication services uses a ticket granting system to provide access?
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which of the following was based on a previous X.500 specification and allows either unencrypted authentication or encrypted authentication through the use of TLS?
A. Kerberos
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following types of security services are used to support authentication for remote users and devices?
A. Biometrics
B. HSM
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
A hacker has discovered a simple way to disrupt business for the day in a small company which relies on staff working remotely. In a matter of minutes the hacker was able to deny remotely working staff access to company systems with a script. Which of the following security controls is the hacker exploiting?
A. DoS
B. Account lockout
C. Password recovery
D. Password complexity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
A technician is reviewing the logical access control method an organization uses. One of the senior managers requests that the technician prevent staff members from logging on during nonworking days. Which of the following should the technician implement to meet managements request?
A. Enforce Kerberos
B. Deploy smart cards
C. Time of day restrictions
D. Access control lists
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is the BEST reason for placing a password lock on a mobile device?
A. Prevents an unauthorized user from accessing owner’s data
B. Enables remote wipe capabilities
C. Stops an unauthorized user from using the device again
D. Prevents an unauthorized user from making phone calls
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is mainly used for remote access into the network?
A. XTACACS
B. TACACS+
C. Kerberos
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which of the following protocols uses TCP instead of UDP and is incompatible with all previous versions?
A. TACACS
B. XTACACS
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS+
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
The system administrator is tasked with changing the administrator password across all 2000 computers in the organization. SY0-401 dumps Which of the following should the system administrator implement to accomplish this task?
A. A security group
B. A group policy
C. Key escrow
D. Certificate revocation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
The IT department has setup a website with a series of questions to allow end users to reset their own accounts. Which of the following account management practices does this help?
A. Account Disablements
B. Password Expiration
C. Password Complexity
D. Password Recovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Use of group accounts should be minimized to ensure which of the following?
A. Password security
B. Regular auditing
C. Baseline management
D. Individual accountability
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
One of the most basic ways to protect the confidentiality of data on a laptop in the event the device is physically stolen is to implement which of the following?
A. File level encryption with alphanumeric passwords
B. Biometric authentication and cloud storage
C. Whole disk encryption with two-factor authentication
D. BIOS passwords and two-factor authentication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
A security analyst implemented group-based privileges within the company active directory. Which of the following account management techniques should be undertaken regularly to ensure least privilege principles?
A. Leverage role-based access controls.
B. Perform user group clean-up.
C. Verify smart card access controls.
D. Verify SHA-256 for password hashes.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
An internal auditing team would like to strengthen the password policy to support special characters. Which of the following types of password controls would achieve this goal?
A. Add reverse encryption
B. Password complexity
C. Increase password length
D. Allow single sign on
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which of the following is best practice to put at the end of an ACL?
A. Implicit deny
B. Time of day restrictions
C. Implicit allow
D. SNMP string
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Ann, a security administrator, wishes to replace their RADIUS authentication with a more secure protocol, which can utilize EAP. Which of the following would BEST fit her objective?
A. CHAP
B. SAML
C. Kerberos
D. Diameter
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Jane, a security administrator, needs to implement a secure wireless authentication method that uses a remote RADIUS server for authentication.
Which of the following is an authentication method Jane should use?
A. WPA2-PSK
B. WEP-PSK
C. CCMP
D. LEAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
A network administrator is configuring access control for the sales department which has high employee turnover. Which of the following is BEST suited when assigning user rights to individuals in the sales department?
A. Time of day restrictions
B. Group based privileges
C. User assigned privileges
D. Domain admin restrictions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
A security technician is working with the network firewall team to implement access controls at the company’s demarc as part of the initiation of configuration management processes. One of the network technicians asks the security technician to explain the access control type found in a firewall. With which of the following should the security technician respond?
A. Rule based access control
B. Role based access control
C. Discretionary access control
D. Mandatory access control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
A security administrator has been tasked to ensure access to all network equipment is controlled by a central server such as TACACS+. This type of implementation supports which of the following risk mitigation strategies?
A. User rights and permissions review
B. Change management
C. Data loss prevention
D. Implement procedures to prevent data theft
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Which of the following is an XML based open standard used in the exchange of authentication and authorization information between different parties?
A. LDAP
B. SAML
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
The security manager wants to unify the storage of credential, phone numbers, office numbers, and address information into one system. Which of the following is a system that will support the requirement on its own?
A. LDAP
B. SAML
C. TACACS
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
LDAP and Kerberos are commonly used for which of the following?
A. To perform queries on a directory service
B. To store usernames and passwords for Federated Identity
C. To sign SSL wildcard certificates for subdomains
D. To utilize single sign-on capabilities
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
A user reports being unable to access a file on a network share. SY0-401 dumps The security administrator determines that the file is marked as confidential and that the user does not have the appropriate access level for that file. Which of the following is being implemented?
A. Mandatory access control
B. Discretionary access control
C. Rule based access control
D. Role based access control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Users report that they are unable to access network printing services. The security technician checks the router access list and sees that web, email, and secure shell are allowed. Which of the following is blocking network printing?
A. Port security
B. Flood guards
C. Loop protection
D. Implicit deny
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Data Center
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Exam Code: 300-160
Total Questions: 439 Q&As
300-160
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New Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-160 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Which component is required to run FCoE?
A. converged network adapter
B. iSCSI gateway
C. host bus adapter
D. Fibre Channel adapter
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation: Computers can connect to FCoE with converged network adapters (CNAs), which contain both Fibre Channel host bus adapter (HBA) and Ethernet Network Interface Card (NIC) functionality on the same adapter card. CNAs have one or more physical Ethernet ports. FCoE encapsulation can be done in software with a conventional Ethernet network interface card, however FCoE CNAs offload (from the CPU) the low level frame processing and SCSI protocol functions traditionally performed by Fibre Channel host bus adapters.

QUESTION 2
You have a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series switch. What is the default load-balancing hash mechanism for traffic on FCoE port channels?
A. the source MAC address
B. the source IP address and the destination IP address
C. the source MAC address and the destination MAC address
D. the source TCP or UDP port and the destination TCP or UDP port
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
On Nexus 5500 the default load balancing mechanism on the LACP port- channel for FCoE traffic is “source-destination”. In this default state, all the FCoE traffic takes the same link in the portchannel when the Nexus 5500 forwards frames over FCoE VE ports. In order to enable all links to be used in the port-channel for FCoE traffic, enter the port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port command to configure Nexus 5500 “port-channel load balancing” to “source-dest-port”. With this configuration “source- destination-oxid” load balancing is used for FCoE traffic.

QUESTION 3
You must configure resiliency for Fibre Channel uplink ports on Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects. Which feature should you configure?
A. an appliance port
B. vPC
C. a port channel
D. a unified storage port
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What is the most common design requirement when creating a data center solution?
A. high availability with disaster recovery
B. multicore CPU servers
C. traffic inspection for inbound traffic
D. virtualization of network resources
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two actions must be performed when you configure Cisco VN-Link in hardware? (Choose two.)
A. Create a distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
B. Add an ESX host to the distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
C. Create a port profile and profile clients in Cisco UCS Manager.
D. Create a standard switch on an ESXi host and map the network adapters to the switch.
E. Create a distributed virtual switch under the datacenter folder in VMware vCenter.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which two platforms support the FCoE protocol? (Choose two)
A. Cisco Nexus 2332TQ Series
B. Cisco MDS 9148S Series
C. Cisco Nexus 7010 Series
D. Cisco MDS 9222i Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP Series
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Spanning Tree Protocol runs at which functional layer of the data center?
A. core layer
B. access layer
C. application layer
D. network layer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You deploy new server infrastructure by using a Cisco UCS platform. Winch two design options can you use to increase the redundancy of the new compute solution’ 300-160 dumps (Choose two.)
A. a 10-Gb uplink port
B. a pin vNic in the server profile to a specific Fabric Interconnect node that has failover disabled
C. an uplink port in a port channel configuration
D. static pinning at the server ports
E. more than one server port to connect the Cisco UCS B-Series blade IOM
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which two options are supported on Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects that use native Fibre Channel connectivity? (Choose two)
A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. DAS
D. SAN
E. iFCP

QUESTION 10
Which technology provides the ability to use all links in a LAN topology by providing an active-active path to the upstream switch?
A. STP
B. vPC
C. PVST+
D. RSTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
When you configure FCIP, which two types of acceleration can you enable to maximize WAN link utilization? (Choose two)
A. SCSI write
B. link
C. SCSI tape
D. WAN
E. IP
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
What are two benefits of a service insertion that is mediated through the Cisco APIC instead of the classical Ethernet model? (Choose two.)
A. provides Layer 5 service insertion capability
B. provides Layer 7 service insertion capability
C. provides policies that can manage the network and service appliances
D. can automate the service insertion
E. provides built-in services, such as Cisco ACE Web Application Firewall and ADC
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. Ethernet
D. MPLS
E. Frame Relay
F. APPN/APPI
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You plan to use vPC+ in a FabricPath topology. What are two characteristics of a vPC+ switch ID? (Choose two.)
A. must he set to 255
B. must be set manually
C. can be reused in the FabricPath topology
D. must be the same on each vPC+ peer
E. must be different on each vPC+ peer
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 15
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between the access and aggregation layers in the data canter?
A. vPC
B. PAgP
C. LACP
D. host vPC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You must use one logical uplink for Fibre Channel traffic and Ethernet traffic on a Cisco UCS system.
Which type of port should you use to accomplish this task?
A. FCoE storage
B. server
C. FCoE uplink
D. uplink
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Server and Uplink Ports on the Fabric Interconnect Each fabric interconnect has a set of ports in a fixed port module that you can configure as either server ports or uplink Ethernet ports. 300-160 dumps These ports are not reserved. They cannot be used by a Cisco UCS instance until you configure them. You can addexpansion modules to increase the number of uplink ports on the fabric interconnect or to add uplink Fibre Channel ports to the fabric interconnect.
You need to create LAN pin groups and SAN pin groups to pin traffic from servers to an uplink port. Each fabric interconnect can include the following types of ports:
Server Ports
Server ports handle data traffic between the fabric interconnect and the adapter cards on the servers. You can only configure server ports on the fixed port module. Expansion modules do not include server ports.
Uplink Ethernet Ports
Uplink Ethernet ports handle Ethernet traffic between the fabric interconnect and the next layer of the network. All network-bound Ethernet traffic is pinned to one of these ports. By default, Ethernet ports are unconfigured. However, you can configure them to function in the following ways:
Server
Uplink
FCoE
Appliance
You can configure uplink Ethernet ports on either the fixed module or an expansion module.
Uplink Fibre Channel Ports
Uplink Fibre Channel ports handle FCoE traffic between the fabric interconnect and the next layer of the network. All network-bound FCoE traffic is pinned to one of these ports. By default, Fibre Channel ports are uplink. However, you can configure them to function as Fibre Channel storage ports. This is useful in cases where a Cisco UCS requires a connection to a Direct-Attached Storage (DAS) device. You can only configure uplink Fibre Channel ports on an expansion module. The fixed module does not include uplink Fibre Channel ports.

QUESTION 17
You use Cisco UCS Central to manage Cisco UCS. Which statement accurately describes how local and global policies are applied?
A. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Director.
B. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Manager, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central.
C. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Director, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central.
D. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Manager.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which technology uses TCP as a block I/O transport?
A. iSCSI
B. NFS v4
C. CIFS
D. FCoE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which statement accurately describes VSAN-based QoS when the same flow is present in two class maps that are associated to a policy map?
A. The highest QoS value is used.
B. The lowest QoS value is used.
C. The QoS value ot the class map that is attached first takes effect.
D. The QoS value ot the class map that is attached last takes effect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A customer is interested in endpoint security at the access layer, which option is Cisco recommended?
A. ACLs
B. DAI
C. TrustSec
D. stateful inspection
E. UDLD
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Data Center
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Exam Code: 200-155
Total Questions: 101 Q&As

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New Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-155 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two )
A. SNMPv3 strong authentication
B. reduced cabling
C. zone port distribution
D. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
E. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
200-155 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer allocates 12 physical ports to a new VDC. Which command is used to verify VDC port allocation on a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. show vdc port-membership
B. show vdc port-allocation
C. show vdc allocation
D. show vdc membership
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A network design engineer is asked to design a SAN (or a company Which two underlying principles of SAN design should be considered? Choose two.)
A. fault isolation, consolidation while maintaining isolation
B. future growth in LAN infrastructure
C. security management, preferential network security
D. scalability of LAN infrastructure, reduced Ethernet QoS complexity
E. short and long term port density and topology requirements
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
Which two adapters far Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. M71-KR
B. P71E
C. VIC-1225
D. P81E
E. VIC-1280
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
Which option describes the STP requirements for Cisco Fabric Path?
A. MST must be configured an every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN.
B. STP is required only to resolve border link failures
C. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN
D. STP is not required on Cisco Fabric Path interfaces.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which ports on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects can operate at either 1 Gb/s or 10 Gb/s?
A. Ports 1?
B. None
C. Ports 1?
D. Ports 1?
E. Ports 17?0
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A user is trying to create a new VDC in NX-OS in global configurations mode, but receives an error message What issue prevents the user from creating Virtual Device Contexts?
A. VDCs cannot be created in global configuration mode.
B. The user is not a vdc-admin.
C. The user is not a member of the VDC Power Admin group.
D. The user is not a network-admin.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
200-155 dumps Which option describes Cisco’s virtual device context feature?
A. logical virtualization of a single physical switch
B. logical witches aggregated into a single physical switch
C. logical switches aggregated into multiple physical switches
D. multiple physical switches partitioned to a single virtual switch
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A Cisco UCS administrator wants only the Cisco UCS chassis with four connections between each IOM and the Fabric Interconnect pair to be recognized. Which policy and corresponding action must be configured?
A. Chassis/FEX Discovery Policy, Action: 4-link
B. Chassis/FEX Discovery Policy, Redundancy Action: N+1
C. Rack Management Connection Policy, Action: 4-link
D. Power Policy, Redundancy Action: Grid
E. Rack Server Discovery Policy, Action: 4-link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. LAN
C. VSAN
D. Policies
E. Equipment
F. Global
G. Admin
Correct Answer: BEG

QUESTION 11
Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in Fabric Path? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MOS 9500 Series directors
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
E. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
The marketing, research, and business departments of a company each have servers and storage in the SAN fabric connected to a Cisco MDS switch. The storage engineer is asked to ensure that each department’s servers and storage are isolated from the other departments. Which two steps can the engineer take to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Create VSAN 10, 11, and 12 on the MDS switch.
B. Add marketing devices to VSAN 10, research to VSAN 11, and business to VSAN 12.
C. Create VSAN 10 on the MDS switch.
D. Add marketing, research, and business devices to VSAN 10.
E. Create VSAN 10 and VSAN 11.
F. Add all storage devices to VSAN 10. Add all server devices to VSAN 11.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Which two modes of setup are offered on the initial setup script on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Restore
B. Setup
C. Console
D. Serial
E. Management 0
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VWware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose two )
A. access control lists
B. QoS marking
C. Network vMotion
D. port state migration
E. DV Port Groups
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is a virtual technology that helps create multiple route tables that function on the same physical router?
A. VSS
B. vPC
C. VRF
D. VSAN
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Layer 3 networks can be logically separated by which technology?
A. bridge domain
B. VRF
C. VLAN
D. tenant
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)
A. provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
B. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
C. has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
D. uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
E. uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 18
A network engineer wants to configure switch ports on Cisco Nexus 2000 and 2200 Fabric Extender switches that are connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch. Which two options allow this configuration? 200-155 dumps (Choose two)
A. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
B. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5600 using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
C. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
D. Connect to each at the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using a console cable then configure the FEX switch ports.
E. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5500 switch using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 19
What are two main benefits of standardized open API’s in a multi-vendor environment? (Choose two)
A. automation
B. clustering
C. interoperability
D. centralized management
E. configuration management
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 20
Which two options are advantages of a spine and leaf architecture? (Choose two )
A. robust multipathing
B. traffic that is optimized for east-west communication
C. star topology
D. traffic that is optimized for north-south communication
E. exponential scalability
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 21
What is the primary benefit of Cisco Global Load Balancing Solution?
A. implements business continuity and disaster recovery by optimizing the DNS infrastructure
B. encrypts data communication
C. accelerates content delivery through a designated content cache engine
D. adds resiliency to the core layer of a data center
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which Cisco Nexus 1000V component is the equivalent of a line card on a standard Cisco Nexus switch?
A. Virtual Ethernet Module
B. Virtual Supervisor Module
C. Virtual Service Blade
D. Virtual Security Gateway
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which tool organizes workflows to automate simple and complex actions on infrastructure?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco DCNM
D. Cisco UCS server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which three are the three primary methods to configure Cisco UCS B-Series systems? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP
B. XML API
C. UCS Manager GUI
D. IPMI
E. UCS Manager CLI
F. CIM-XML
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 25
Which management platform reduces server provisioning tome by automatically performing an inventory and deep discovery when new devices are attached?
A. UCS Manager
B. UCS Server
C. CDP Manager
D. Enterprise Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A customer deployed Cisco B200 blades with service profiles. The customer experiences an outage on one of the Cisco B200 blades that will be replaced with a spare blade already in inventory. Which two steps should the customer take to replace the failed blade? (Choose two.)
A. Disassociate the service profile from the failed blade.
B. Associate the service profile to the spare blade.
C. Create a new service profile for the spare blade.
D. Delete the service profile from the spare blade.
E. Create a new service profile template for the failed blade.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 27
Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. finite state machine
B. state monitor
C. state manager
D. discovery
E. logical state arbiter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A network engineer is migrating the server farm from 1 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity la 10 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity What two Cisco Nexus Fabric Extenders support 10 Gb/s server connectivity? 200-155 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Nexus 2148T
B. Nexus 2232PP
C. Nexus 2248TP
D. Nexus 2248PQ
E. Nexus 2224TP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 29
Which statements are valid for a local SPAN configuration’? (Choose two.)
A. Source and destination interface must be on the same host
B. Source and destination interfaces can be on different hosts
C. Destination vEthernet interface can be on a different VLAN than the source
D. Destination interface can be a physical port
E. Destination interface cannot be a physical port
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
When using a Cisco UCS Director, a typical workflow consists of which two terms? (Choose Two )
A. Resource Manager
B. Workflow Designer
C. Scheduler
D. Activity Planner
E. Predefined Tasks
Correct Answer: BE

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