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The questions for 500-220 were last updated on April 21, 2022.

Viewing questions 1-15 out of 57 questions:

Question 1:

When an SSID is configured with the Sign-On Splash page enabled, which two settings must be configured for unauthenticated clients to have full network access and not be allowed listed? (Choose two.)

A. Controller disconnection behavior

B. Captive Portal strength

C. Simultaneous logins

D. Firewall and traffic shaping

E. RADIUS for splash page settings

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/Access_Control

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming this MX has established a full tunnel with its VPN peer, how will the MX route the WebEx traffic?

A. WebEx traffic will prefer WAN 2 as long as it meets the thresholds in the “Conf” performance class.

B. WebEx traffic will prefer WAN 1 as it is the primary uplink.

C. WebEx traffic will prefer WAN 2 as long as it is up.

D. WebEx traffic will be load-balanced between both active WAN links.

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

For which two reasons can an organization become “Out of License”? (Choose two.)

A. licenses that are in the wrong network

B. more hardware devices than device licenses

C. expired device license

D. licenses that do not match the serial numbers in the organization

E. MR licenses that do not match the MR models in the organization

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Licensing/Meraki_Licensing_FAQs

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions are required to optimize load balancing asymmetrically with a 4:1 ratio between links? (Choose two.)

A. Change the primary uplink to “none”.

B. Add an internet traffic preference that defines the load-balancing ratio as 4:1.

C. Enable load balancing.

D. Set the speed of the cellular uplink to zero.

E. Change the assigned speeds of WAN 1 and WAN 2 so that the ratio is 4:1.

Correct Answer: BC

Question 5:

Which Cisco Meraki best practice method preserves complete historical network event logs?

A. Configuring the preserved event number to maximize logging.

B. Configuring the preserved event period to unlimited.

C. Configuring a Syslog server for the network.

D. Configuring Dashboard logging to preserve only certain event types.

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

Which design requirement is met by implementing Syslog versus SNMP?

A. when automation capabilities are needed

B. when proactive alerts for critical events must be generated

C. when organization-wide information must be collected

D. when information such as flows and client connectivity must be gathered

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Monitoring_and_Reporting/Meraki_Device_Reporting_-_Syslog%2C_SNMP%2C_and_API

Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. The VPN concentrator is experiencing issues. Which action should be taken to ensure a stable environment?

A. Add a deny any/any firewall rule to the end of the firewall rules.

B. Remove the connection from Internet 1.

C. Physically disconnect all LAN ports.

D. Configure the MX appliance to Routed Mode on the Addressing and VLANS page.

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. A packet arrives on the VPN concentrator with source IP and destined for IP What is the next hop for the packet, based on this concentrator routing table?

A. The concentrator gateway ( is the next hop.

B. Not enough detail is available to determine the next hop.

C. The packet is stopped.

D. The Auto VPN peer “Store 1532 ? appliance” is the next hop.

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

Company iPads are enrolled in Systems Manager without supervision, and profiles are pushed through Systems Manager.

Which outcome occurs when a user attempts to remove the “Meraki Management” profile on an iPad?

A. The “Meraki Management” profile cannot be removed.

B. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed and then pushed automatically by the Systems Manager.

C. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed. All the profiles that Systems Manager pushed are also removed.

D. The “Meraki Management” profile is removed. All the profiles Systems Manager pushed remain.

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

Which two features and functions are supported when using an MX appliance in Passthrough mode? (Choose two.)

A. intrusion prevention

B. site-to-site VPN

C. secondary uplinks


E. high availability

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MX/Networks_and_Routing/Passthrough_Mode_on_the_MX_Security_Appliance_and_Z-series_Teleworker_Gateway

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. What are the Loss and Average Latency statistics based on?

A. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing hostnames on the Insight > Web App Health page

B. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP addresses on the Security and SD-WAN > Firewall page

C. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP address that is configured on the Security and SD-WAN > SD-WAN and Traffic Shaping page

D. responses that the MX appliance receives on the connectivity-testing IP addresses on the Help > Firewall info page

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

In an organization that uses the Co-Termination licensing model, which two operations enable licenses to be applied? (Choose two.)

A. Renew the Dashboard license.

B. License a network.

C. License more devices.

D. Call Meraki support.

E. Wait for the devices to auto-renew.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Licensing/Meraki_Co-Termination_Licensing_Overview

Question 13:

Which two Systems Manager Live tools are available only for Apple Macs and Windows PCs and cannot be used on iOS or Android mobile devices? (Choose two.)

A. OS updates

B. Send notification

C. Selective wipe

D. Screenshot

E. Remote Desktop

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/SM/Other_Topics/Systems_Manager_FAQ

Question 14:

What are two ways peers interact with ports that Auto VPN uses? (Choose two.)

A. For IPsec tunneling, peers use high UDP ports within the 32768 to 61000 range.

B. Peers contact the VPN registry at UDP port 9350.

C. For IPsec tunneling, peers use high TCP ports within the 32768 to 61000 range.

D. Peers contact the VPN registry at TCP port 9350.

E. For IPsec tunneling, peers use UDP ports 500 and 4500.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MX/Site-to-site_VPN/Meraki_Auto_VPN_-_Configuration_and_Troubleshooting

Question 15:

What occurs when a configuration change is made to an MX network that is bound to a configuration template?

A. The configuration change in the bound network is combined with the template configuration inside the template.

B. The more restrictive configuration is preferred.

C. The configuration change in the bound network overrides the template configuration.

D. The template configuration overrides the configuration change in the bound network.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Templates_and_Config_Sync/Managing_Multiple_Networks_with_Configuration_Templates


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The questions for 300-820 were last updated on April 22, 2022.

Viewing questions 1-13 out of 96 questions:


Where are voice calls handled in a Cisco Jabber hybrid cloud-based deployment with Cisco Webex Platform Service?

A. Voice calls use the Webex Calling platform for call control and uses hybrid media nodes for local conferencing.
B. Voice calls use local media nodes to keep traffic internal for internal traffic and use Webex Calling for external calls.
C. Voice call use Cisco Unified Communications Manager for local calls and Webex Calling for external calls.
D. Voice calls use local Cisco Unified Communications Manager for all calls.

Correct Answer: D


Refer to the exhibit.

Mobile Cisco Jabber cannot register with on-premises Cisco Unified Communications Manager using Mobile and Remote Access. Some logs were captured on Expressway Edge.
Which action corrects this problem?

A. Ensure that the peer address does not match the Common Name on the certificate.
B. Ensure that the _cisco-uds SRV record has been configured.
C. Ensure that the credential has been entered correctly.
D. Ensure that the SIP domains are added to Expressway Core.

Correct Answer: C


Refer to the exhibit.

Calls to locally registered endpoints are failing. At present, there are two endpoints registered locally to this Expressway.
An H.323 endpoint with an alias of “EndpointA” is registered, and a SIP endpoint with an alias of
[email protected]” is also registered.
How is this issue resolved?

A. The dialplan must be redesigned to use the transforms to convert the alias into SIP URI format and then use separate search rules for each format that needs to be dialed within the local zone.
B. The calls are failing because there are insufficient licenses. Additional licenses must be installed for the Expressway to route these calls.
C. The current search rule does not match the call, so the search rule must be modified to include a SIP Variant of “Standards-Based”.
D. Calling parties are placing calls with the wrong domain. End-users must be instructed not to use the pod1. local domain as that is owned by the local system. Calls to any other domain would work.

Correct Answer: A


Which two statements about Expressway media traversal are true? (Choose two.)

A. Expressway Control is the traversal server installed in the DMZ.
B. The Expressway Edge must be put in a firewall DMZ segment.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone can be either traversal server or client.
D. The Unified Communications traversal zone can be used for Mobile and Remote Access.
E. Both Expressway Edge interfaces can be NATed.

Correct Answer: BD


Which two licenses are required for the Expressway B2B feature to work? (Choose two)

A. Traversal Server
B. Advanced Networking
C. Device Provisioning
D. Rich Media Sessions
E. TURN Relays

Correct Answer: AD


Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of a transformation applied to alias 88514?

A. [email protected]
B. [email protected] com
C. [email protected]
D. [email protected]

Correct Answer: C

The answer should be [email protected] since the regex considers anything after digit 8 (excludes 1-7), leaves the rest intact, and replaces the domain. So in the short term, it simply adds the domain after the DN.


In a Mobile and Remote Access deployment, where must communications be encrypted with TLS?

A. Cisco Expressway-E and endpoints outside the enterprise
B. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and IMandP
C. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Expressway-E, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Expressway-E, and endpoints outside the enterprise

Correct Answer: A


Refer to the exhibit showing logs from the Expressway-C, a copy of the Expressway-E certificate, and the UC traversal zone configuration for the Expressway-C. An office administrator is deploying mobile and remote access and sees an issue with the UC traversal zone. The zone is showing “TLS negotiation failure”.

What is causing this issue?

A. The Expressway-E certificate includes the Expressway-C FQDN as a SAN entry
B. The Expressway-C is missing the FQDN of Cisco UCM in the Common Name of its certificate
C. In the UC Traversal Zone on the Expressway-C, the peer address is set to the IP of the Expressway-E, which is not a SAN entry in the Expressway-E certificate
D. The Expressway-E does not have the FQDN of Cisco UCM listed as a SAN in its certificate

Correct Answer: D


Which step is taken when configuring a Cisco Expressway solution?

A. Configure the Expressway-E by using a non-traversal server zone.
B. Enable static NAT on the Expressway-E only.
C. Disable H.323 mode on the Expressway-E.
D. Enable H.323 H.460.19 demultiplexing mode on the Expressway-C.

Correct Answer: B


What is the purpose of using ICE for Mobile and Remote Access endpoints in the Cisco Collaboration infrastructure?

A. ICE controls the bandwidth usage for Cisco Collaboration endpoints if the endpoints are located outside the company network.
B. ICE enables Cisco Collaboration endpoints to determine if there is direct connectivity between them.
C. ICE uses FAST updates to optimize the video quality in case of packet loss. This technology is available only from Cisco Unified CM version 11.5 and later.
D. ICE enablement allows for the Cisco Collaboration endpoint to register through Expressway servers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager behind a firewall.

Correct Answer: B

The following ICE-capable endpoints can send media directly to each other when they are MRA-registered and ICE passthrough is enabled https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/PA/ICE/icepa125.html


An Expressway-E is configured using a single NIC with NAT.
How must the Expressway-C traversal client zone be configured to connect to the Expressway-E?

A. TLS verification must be enabled.
B. The zone profile must be set to default.
C. The peer address must be the Expressway-E NAT address.
D. The peer address must be the Expressway-E LAN 1 IP address.

Correct Answer: C


Which two types of information does Cisco Expressway back up? (Choose two.)

A. call records
B. log files
C. IP addresses
D. current call states
E. security certificates

Correct Answer: AE

The data saved to a backup file includes:
Bootstrap key (from X8.11)
System configuration settings
Clustering configuration
Local authentication data (but not Active Directory credentials for remotely managed accounts)
User account and password details
Server security certificate and private key
Call detail records (if the CDR service on Expressway is enabled)



Which DNS record and port combination must be resolved externally for Mobile and Remote Access to be used?

A. _collab-edge on port 8443
B. _cisco-uds-edge on port 5061
C. _collab-edge on port 5061
D. _cisco-uds on port 8443

Correct Answer: A


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2022 300-420 [Q1]:

An engineer must design a solution to connect a customer to the Internet. The solution will include a Layer 3 circuit with a CIR of 50 Mbps from the service provider. The hand-off from the provider\’s switch to the customer\’s router is 1Gbps. Which solution should the engineer include to prevent potential issues with choppy voice traffic?

A. Reduce the bandwidth of the connection to the router.
B. Implement hierarchical QoS with a parent policing policy.
C. Implement hierarchical QoS with a parent shaping policy.
D. Add a bandwidth statement to the router interface.

Correct Answer: C

2022 300-420 [Q2]:

An engineer is designing a Layer 3 campus network running EIGRP between the core, aggregation, and access layers.
The access layer switches will be connected to the aggregation layer using Layer 3 copper connections. The engineer wants to improve the convergence time for access layer switch failures. Which technique must the design include?

A. enabling BFD for EIGRP on the access layer uplinks
B. reducing the EIGRP Hello / Hold timer values
C. EIGRP summarization from core to aggregation layer
D. EIGRP summarization from access to aggregation layer

Correct Answer: A

2022 300-420 [Q3]:

Which two statements about VRRP object tracking are true? (Choose two)

A. The priority of a VRRP device can change in accordance with the up or down status of a VRRP object
B. The VRRP interface priority must be manually configured by the administrator
C. A VRRP group can track only one object at a time
D. VRRP can track the status of interfaces and routes
E. VRRP supports only interface tracking

Correct Answer: AD

2022 300-420 [Q4]:

Which two border nodes are available in the Cisco SD-Access architecture? (Choose two.)

A. extended border
B. edge border
C. internal border
D. anywhere border
E. intermediate border

Correct Answer: CD

2022 300-420 [Q5]:

Which topology within a network underlay eliminates the need for first-hop redundancy protocols while improving fault tolerance, increasing resiliency, and simplifying the network?

A. virtualized topology
B. routed access topology
C. Layer 2 topology
D. logical fabric topology

Correct Answer: D

2022 300-420 [Q6]:

Drag and drop the elements from the left onto the functions they perform in the Cisco SD-WAN architecture on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

2022 300-420 [Q7]:

An engineer must connect a new remote site to an existing OSPF network. The new site consists of two low-end routers, one for WAN, and one for LAN. There is no demand for traffic to pass through this area. Which area type does the engineer choose to provide minimal router resource utilization, while still allowing for full connectivity to the rest of the network?

A. not so stubby
B. totally not so stubby
C. totally stubby area
D. stubby area

Correct Answer: D

2022 300-420 [Q8]:

An organization is designing a detailed QoS plan that limits bandwidth to specific rates. Which two parameters are supported by the traffic policing feature? (Choose two.)

A. violating
B. marking
C. shaping
D. bursting
E. conforming

Correct Answer: BC

2022 300-420 [Q9]:

A customer is discussing QoS requirements with a network consultant. The customer has specified that endto-end path verification is a requirement. Which QoS solution meets this requirement?

A. IntServ model with RSVP to support the traffic flows
B. DiffServ model with PHB to support the traffic flows
C. marking traffic at the access layer with DSCP to support the traffic flows
D. marking traffic at the access layer with CoS to support the traffic flows

Correct Answer: A

2022 300-420 [Q10]:

Refer to the exhibit.

An architect must design a solution that uses the direct link between R1 and R2 for traffic from toward network Which solution should the architect include in the design?

A. Configure the OSPF cost of the link to a value lower than 30.
B. Lower the Administrative Distance for OSPF area 0.
C. Place the link into area 2 and install a new link between R1 and R2 in area 0.
D. Configure the link to provide multiarea adjacency.

Correct Answer: A

2022 300-420 [Q11]:

Which two routing protocols allow for unequal cost load balancing? (Choose two.)

E. RIPng

Correct Answer: AC

2022 300-420 [Q12]:

Which type of rendezvous point deployment is standards-based and supports dynamic RP discovery?

A. Auto-RP
B. Anycast-RP
C. bootstrap router
D. static RP

Correct Answer: C

2022 300-420 [Q13]:

Refer to the exhibit. An architect must design a solution to connect the two ASs. To optimize bandwidth, the design will implement load sharing between router R6 and router R1. Which solution should the design include?

A. Use update-source to specify the Loopback interface.
B. Use next-hop-self attributes only for routes that are learned from eBGP peers.
C. Configure the eBGP TTL to support eBGP multihop.
D. Use maximum paths to install multiple paths in the routing table.

Correct Answer: D


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2022 350-401 [Q1]:

Which statements are used for error handling in Python?

A. try/catch
B. try/except
C. block/rescue
D. catch/release

Correct Answer: B

The words “try” and “except” are Python keywords and are used to catch exceptions.
For example:
print 1/0
except ZeroDivisionError:
print \’ Error! We cannot divide by zero!!!\’

2022 350-401 [Q2]:

What is the function of a fabric border node in a Cisco SD-Access environment?

A. To collect traffic flow information toward external networks
B. To connect the Cisco SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks
C. To attach and register clients to the fabric
D. To handle an ordered list of IP addresses and locations for endpoints in the fabric.

Correct Answer: B

2022 350-401 [Q3]:

What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in the data center environment? (Choose two.)

A. Increased security
B. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements
C. reduced IP and MAC address requirements

D. speedy deployment
E. smaller Layer 2 domain

Correct Answer: BD

Server virtualization and the use of virtual machines are profoundly changing data center dynamics. Most organizations are struggling with the cost and complexity of hosting multiple physical servers in their data centers. The expansion of the data center, a result of both scale-out server architectures and traditional “one application, one server” sprawl, has created problems in housing, powering, and cooling large numbers of underutilized servers. In addition, IT organizations continue to deal with the traditional cost and operational challenges of matching server resources to organizational needs that seem fickle and ever-changing. Virtual machines can significantly mitigate many of these challenges by enabling multiple application and operating system environments to be hosted on a single physical server while
maintaining complete isolation between the guest operating systems and their respective applications. Hence, server virtualization facilitates server consolidation by enabling organizations to exchange a number of underutilized servers for a single highly utilized server running multiple virtual machines. By consolidating multiple physical servers, organizations can gain several benefits:
Underutilized servers can be retired or redeployed.
Rack space can be reclaimed.
Power and cooling loads can be reduced.
New virtual servers can be rapidly deployed.
CapEx (higher utilization means fewer servers need to be purchased) and OpEx (few servers means a simpler environment and lower maintenance costs) can be reduced.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-centervirtualization/net_implementation_white_paper0900aecd806a9c05.html

2022 350-401 [Q4]:

Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?

A. ICMP echo
B. UDP jitter
C. CMP jitter
D. TCP connect

Correct Answer: B

Cisco IOS IP SLA Responder is a Cisco IOS Software component whose functionality is to respond to Cisco IOS IP SLA request packets. The IP SLA source sends control packets before the operation starts to establish a connection to the responder. Once the control packet is acknowledged, test packets are sent to the responder. The responder inserts a time-stamp when it receives a packet and factors out the destination processing time and adds timestamps to the sent packets. This feature allows the calculation of unidirectional packet loss, latency, and jitter measurements with the kind of accuracy that is not possible with ping or another dedicated probe testing.
The IP SLAs responder is a component embedded in the destination Cisco device that allows the system to anticipate and respond to IP SLAs request packets. The responder provides accurate measurements without the need for dedicated probes.
UDP Jitter measures the delay, delay variation(jitter), corruption, and misordering packet loss by generating periodic UDP traffic. This operation always requires an IP SLA responder.

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2017/pdf/BRKNMS-3043.pdf https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/46sg/configuration/guide/Wrapper-46SG/swipsla.pdf

2022 350-401 [Q5]:

Which statement about a fabric access point is true?

A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node.
B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node.
C. It is in local mode and must connect directly to the fabric edge switch.
D. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.

Correct Answer: C

Fabric mode APs continue to support the same wireless media services that traditional APs support; apply AVC, quality of service (QoS), and other wireless policies; and establish the CAPWAP control plane to the fabric WLC. Fabric APs join as local-mode APs and must be directly connected to the fabric edge node switch to enable fabric registration events, including RLOC assignment via the fabric WLC. The fabric edge nodes use CDP to recognize APs as special wired hosts, applying special port configurations and assigning the APs to a unique overlay network within a common EID space across a fabric. The assignment allows management simplification by using a single subnet to cover the AP infrastructure at a fabric site.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/sda-sdg-2019oct.html

2022 350-401 [Q6]:

Which network devices secure API platforms?

A. next-generation intrusion detection systems
B. Layer 3 transit network devices
C. content switches
D. web application firewalls

Correct Answer: A

2022 350-401 [Q7]:

Which solution do laaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network?


Correct Answer: C

2022 350-401 [Q8]:

What is the function of the fabric control plane node In a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

A. It is responsible for policy application and network segmentation in the fabric.
B. It performs traffic encapsulation and security profiles enforcement in the fabric.
C. It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric.
D. It provides Integration with legacy nonfabric-enabled environments.

Correct Answer: C

Fabric control plane node (C): One or more network elements that implement the LISP Map-Server (MS) and Map-Resolver (MR) functionality. The control plane node`s host tracking database keeps track of all endpoints in a fabric site and associates the endpoints to fabric nodes in what is known as an EID-to- RLOC binding in LISP.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/cisco-sda-macro-segmentation-deploy-guide.html

2022 350-401 [Q9]:

Which protocol is used to encrypt control plane traffic between SD-WAN controllers and SDWAN endpoints?

B. IPsec

Correct Answer: A

2022 350-401 [Q10]:

Which two statements about IP SLA are true? (Choose two)

A. It uses NetFlow for passive traffic monitoring
B. It can measure MOS
C. The IP SLA responder is a component in the source Cisco device
D. It is Layer 2 transport-independent correct
E. It uses active traffic monitoring correct
F. SNMP access is not supported

Correct Answer: DE

IP SLAs allows Cisco customers to analyze IP service levels for IP applications and services, increase productivity, lower operational costs, and reduce the frequency of network outages. IP SLAs use active traffic monitoring the generation of traffic in a continuous, reliable, and predictable manner or measuring network performance. Being Layer-2 transport-independent, IP SLAs can be configured end-to-end over disparate networks to best reflect the metrics that an end-user is likely to experience. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipsla/configuration/15-mt/sla-15- mt-book/ sla_overview.html

2022 350-401 [Q11]:

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure deployment models on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

2022 350-401 [Q12]:

What is used to measure the total output energy of a Wi-Fi device?

A. dBi
C. mW

D. dBm

Correct Answer: C

Output power is measured in mW (milliwatts). answer \’dBi\’ milliwatt is equal to one thousandth (10-3) of a watt.

2022 350-401 [Q13]:

How does the RIB differ from the FIB?

A. The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.

B. The FIB includes many routes and a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination.

C. The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route

D. The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.

Correct Answer: A


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