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Latest Cisco 350-401 dumps exam questions Free sharing

Updated 2022.6

QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must create a configuration that prevents R3from receiving the LSA about 172.16.1.4/32. Which configuration set achieves this goal? [Missing the exhibit]

A. On R3 ip access-list standard R4_L0 deny host 172.16.1.4 permit any
router ospf 200
distribute-list R4_L0 in

B. On R3 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32
router ospf 200
area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA 1 in

C. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA 1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32
router ospf 200
area 1 filter-list prefix IN TO-AREA1 in

D. On R1 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 5 deny 172.16.1.4/32 ip prefix-list INTO-AREA1 seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 le 32
router ospf 200
area 1 filter-list prefix INTO-AREA1 out

QUESTION 2:

Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

A. sniffer
B. monitor
C. bridge
D. local

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

The EtherChannel between SW2 and SW3 is not operational which action resolves this issue?

A. Configure the channel-group mode on SW2 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to on.
B. Configure the channel-group mode on SW3 Gi0/0 and Gi0/1 to active.
C. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/0 to the trunk.
D. Configure the mode on SW2 Gi0/1 to access.

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0. Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?

A. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point

B. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast

C. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out

D. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf priority 1
R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0
R2(config-if)ip ospf priority 1

QUESTION 5:

How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?

A. EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF
B. EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors
C. EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost.
D. EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF

……

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2022 350-401 [Q1]:

Which statements are used for error handling in Python?

A. try/catch
B. try/except
C. block/rescue
D. catch/release

Correct Answer: B

The words “try” and “except” are Python keywords and are used to catch exceptions.
For example:
try:
print 1/0
except ZeroDivisionError:
print \’ Error! We cannot divide by zero!!!\’

2022 350-401 [Q2]:

What is the function of a fabric border node in a Cisco SD-Access environment?

A. To collect traffic flow information toward external networks
B. To connect the Cisco SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks
C. To attach and register clients to the fabric
D. To handle an ordered list of IP addresses and locations for endpoints in the fabric.

Correct Answer: B

2022 350-401 [Q3]:

What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in the data center environment? (Choose two.)

A. Increased security
B. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements
C. reduced IP and MAC address requirements

D. speedy deployment
E. smaller Layer 2 domain

Correct Answer: BD

Server virtualization and the use of virtual machines are profoundly changing data center dynamics. Most organizations are struggling with the cost and complexity of hosting multiple physical servers in their data centers. The expansion of the data center, a result of both scale-out server architectures and traditional “one application, one server” sprawl, has created problems in housing, powering, and cooling large numbers of underutilized servers. In addition, IT organizations continue to deal with the traditional cost and operational challenges of matching server resources to organizational needs that seem fickle and ever-changing. Virtual machines can significantly mitigate many of these challenges by enabling multiple application and operating system environments to be hosted on a single physical server while
maintaining complete isolation between the guest operating systems and their respective applications. Hence, server virtualization facilitates server consolidation by enabling organizations to exchange a number of underutilized servers for a single highly utilized server running multiple virtual machines. By consolidating multiple physical servers, organizations can gain several benefits:
+
Underutilized servers can be retired or redeployed.
+
Rack space can be reclaimed.
+
Power and cooling loads can be reduced.
+
New virtual servers can be rapidly deployed.
+
CapEx (higher utilization means fewer servers need to be purchased) and OpEx (few servers means a simpler environment and lower maintenance costs) can be reduced.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-centervirtualization/net_implementation_white_paper0900aecd806a9c05.html

2022 350-401 [Q4]:

Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?

A. ICMP echo
B. UDP jitter
C. CMP jitter
D. TCP connect

Correct Answer: B

Cisco IOS IP SLA Responder is a Cisco IOS Software component whose functionality is to respond to Cisco IOS IP SLA request packets. The IP SLA source sends control packets before the operation starts to establish a connection to the responder. Once the control packet is acknowledged, test packets are sent to the responder. The responder inserts a time-stamp when it receives a packet and factors out the destination processing time and adds timestamps to the sent packets. This feature allows the calculation of unidirectional packet loss, latency, and jitter measurements with the kind of accuracy that is not possible with ping or another dedicated probe testing.
The IP SLAs responder is a component embedded in the destination Cisco device that allows the system to anticipate and respond to IP SLAs request packets. The responder provides accurate measurements without the need for dedicated probes.
UDP Jitter measures the delay, delay variation(jitter), corruption, and misordering packet loss by generating periodic UDP traffic. This operation always requires an IP SLA responder.

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2017/pdf/BRKNMS-3043.pdf https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/46sg/configuration/guide/Wrapper-46SG/swipsla.pdf

2022 350-401 [Q5]:

Which statement about a fabric access point is true?

A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node.
B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node.
C. It is in local mode and must connect directly to the fabric edge switch.
D. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.

Correct Answer: C

Fabric mode APs continue to support the same wireless media services that traditional APs support; apply AVC, quality of service (QoS), and other wireless policies; and establish the CAPWAP control plane to the fabric WLC. Fabric APs join as local-mode APs and must be directly connected to the fabric edge node switch to enable fabric registration events, including RLOC assignment via the fabric WLC. The fabric edge nodes use CDP to recognize APs as special wired hosts, applying special port configurations and assigning the APs to a unique overlay network within a common EID space across a fabric. The assignment allows management simplification by using a single subnet to cover the AP infrastructure at a fabric site.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/sda-sdg-2019oct.html

2022 350-401 [Q6]:

Which network devices secure API platforms?

A. next-generation intrusion detection systems
B. Layer 3 transit network devices
C. content switches
D. web application firewalls

Correct Answer: A

2022 350-401 [Q7]:

Which solution do laaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network?

A. VLAN
B. VTEP
C. VXLAN
D. VRF

Correct Answer: C

2022 350-401 [Q8]:

What is the function of the fabric control plane node In a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

A. It is responsible for policy application and network segmentation in the fabric.
B. It performs traffic encapsulation and security profiles enforcement in the fabric.
C. It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric.
D. It provides Integration with legacy nonfabric-enabled environments.

Correct Answer: C

Fabric control plane node (C): One or more network elements that implement the LISP Map-Server (MS) and Map-Resolver (MR) functionality. The control plane node`s host tracking database keeps track of all endpoints in a fabric site and associates the endpoints to fabric nodes in what is known as an EID-to- RLOC binding in LISP.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/cisco-sda-macro-segmentation-deploy-guide.html

2022 350-401 [Q9]:

Which protocol is used to encrypt control plane traffic between SD-WAN controllers and SDWAN endpoints?

A. DTLS
B. IPsec
C. PGP
D. HTTPS

Correct Answer: A

2022 350-401 [Q10]:

Which two statements about IP SLA are true? (Choose two)

A. It uses NetFlow for passive traffic monitoring
B. It can measure MOS
C. The IP SLA responder is a component in the source Cisco device
D. It is Layer 2 transport-independent correct
E. It uses active traffic monitoring correct
F. SNMP access is not supported

Correct Answer: DE

IP SLAs allows Cisco customers to analyze IP service levels for IP applications and services, increase productivity, lower operational costs, and reduce the frequency of network outages. IP SLAs use active traffic monitoring the generation of traffic in a continuous, reliable, and predictable manner or measuring network performance. Being Layer-2 transport-independent, IP SLAs can be configured end-to-end over disparate networks to best reflect the metrics that an end-user is likely to experience. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipsla/configuration/15-mt/sla-15- mt-book/ sla_overview.html

2022 350-401 [Q11]:

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure deployment models on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

2022 350-401 [Q12]:

What is used to measure the total output energy of a Wi-Fi device?

A. dBi
B. EARP
C. mW

D. dBm

Correct Answer: C

Output power is measured in mW (milliwatts). answer \’dBi\’ milliwatt is equal to one thousandth (10-3) of a watt.

2022 350-401 [Q13]:

How does the RIB differ from the FIB?

A. The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.

B. The FIB includes many routes and a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination.

C. The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route

D. The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.

Correct Answer: A

……

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[Updated 2022.6]300-415 dumps: 10 minutes of study to help you pass the 90-minute exam

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It only takes 10 minutes of your time:

300-415 dumps: 10 minutes of study to help you pass the 90 minute exam

First of all, you can participate in the exam I made for you to verify your true strength! The February 2022 lead4pass 300-415 dumps have been updated with 212 exam questions. The complete 300-415 exam questions are available in both PDF and VCE formats, We collectively call 300-415 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-415.html (PDF+VCE). This year includes guaranteed free updates for the next 365 days, 100% guaranteed to help you pass the exam.

[Updated 2022.6] 300-415 Dumps exam questions

QUESTION 1:

An administrator must configure an ACL for traffic coming in from the service-side VPN on a specific WAN device with circuit ID 391897770. Which policy must be used to configure this ACL?

A. local data policy
B. central data policy
C. app-aware policy
D. central control policy

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/vedge/policies-book/control-policies.html#c_Localized_Control_Policy_12226.xml

 

QUESTION 2:

A bank is looking for improved customer experience for applications and reduced overhead related to compliance and security. Which key feature or features of the Cisco SD-WAN solution will help the bank to achieve its goals?

A. integration with PaaS providers to offer the best possible application experience

B. QoS includes application prioritization and meeting critical applications SLA for selecting the optimal path.

C. implementation of a modem age core banking system

D. implementation of BGP across the enterprise routing for selecting the optimal path

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/sd-wan/nb-06-sd-wan-sol-overview-cte-en.html#Uniquecapabilities

 

QUESTION 3:

Which third-party Enterprise CA server must be used for a cloud-based vSmart controller?

A. RootCert
B. VeriSign
C. Microsoft
D. RADIUS

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.nterone.com/articles/cisco-sdwan-viptela-everything-you-wanted-to-know-about-certificates-deployment-but-were-afraid-to-ask

 

QUESTION 4:

Which VPN connects the transport-side WAN Edge interface to the underlay/WAN network?

A. VPN 1
B. VPN 511
C. VPN 0
D. VPN 512

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5:

What is a default protocol for a control plane connection?

A. HTTPS
B. TLS
C. IPsec
D. DTLS

Correct Answer: D

[Updated 2022.6]: Continue to learn more about Cisco 300-415 exam questions to help you prepare for the 300-415 ENSDWI Exam

Next, take the 300-415 online test:

Answers are announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1:

Which component of the Cisco SD-WAN secure extensible network provides a single pane of glass approach to network monitoring and configuration?
A. APIC-EM
B. vSmart
C. vManage
D. vBond

QUESTION 2:

300-415 q2

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is getting a CTORGNMMIS error on a controller connection. Which action resolves this issue?

A. Configure a valid certificate on vSMART.
B. Configure a valid organization name.
C. Configure a valid serial number on the WAN Edge.
D. Configure a valid product ID.

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-documents/sd-wan-routers-troubleshoot-control-connections/tap/3813237

QUESTION 3:

Which attributes are configured to uniquely identify and represent a TLOC route?

A. system IP address, link color, and encapsulation
B. origin, originator, and preference
C. site ID, tag, and VPN
D. firewall, IPS, and application optimization

TLOC routes are the logical tunnel termination points on the vEdge routers that connect into a transport network. A TLOC route is uniquely identified and represented by a three-tuple, consisting of system IP address, link color, and encapsulation (Generic Routing Encapsulation [GRE] or IPSec). In addition to system IP address, color, and encapsulation, TLOC routes also carry attributes such as TLOC private and public IP addresses, carrier, preference, site ID, tag, and weight. For a TLOC to be considered in an active state on a particular vEdge, an active BFD session must be associated with that vEdge TLOC. https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/CVD-SD-WANDesign-2018OCT.pdf

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

300-415 q4

Which command allows traffic through the IPsec tunnel configured in VPN 0?

A. service netsvc1 vpn1
B. service netsvc1 address 1.1.1.1
C. service FW address 1.1.1.1
D. service local

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/vedge-20-x/policies-book/service/chaining.html

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

300-415 q5

Which configuration configures IPsec tunnels in active and standby?

300-415 q5-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

QUESTION 6:

The network administrator is configuring a QoS scheduling policy on traffic received from transport side tunnels on WAN Edge 5000 routers at location 406141498 Which command must be configured on these devices?

A. cloud-qos
B. service qos
C. cloud-mis qos
D. mis qos

QUESTION 7:

Which feature builds transport redundancy by using the cross link between two redundant WAN Edge routers?

A. OMP
B. zero-touch provisioning
C. quality of service
D. TLOC extension

QUESTION 8:

Which two products that perform lifecycle management for virtual instances are supported by WAN Edge cloud routers? (Choose two.)

A. OpenStack
B. AWS
C. VMware vCenter
D. Azure
E. IBM Cloud

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/sd-wan/nb-07-cloud-router-data-sheet-cteen.html

300-415 q8

QUESTION 9:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the vManage policy configuration procedures from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Select and Place:

300-415 q9

Correct Answer:

300-415 q9-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/vedge/policies-book/datapolicies.html

QUESTION 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

300-415 q10

The Cisco SD-WAN network is configured with a default full-mesh topology. Islamabad HQ and Islamabad WAN Edges must be used as the hub sites. Hub sites MPLS TLOC must be preferred when forwarding FTP traffic based on a configured SLA class list. Which policy configuration does the network engineer use to call the SLA class and set the preferred color to MPLS?

A. Centralized Policy, Traffic Policy
B. Centralized Policy, Topology
C. Localized Policy, Forwarding Class
D. Localized Policy, Route Policy

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/policies/ios-xe-17/policies-bookxe/centralized-policy.html#Cisco_Concept.dita_d31f22cb-f54f-41df-966a-0ae1ca3c398a

QUESTION 11:

What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode of power allocation when an access point is connected o a PoE switch port?

A. It detects the device is a powered device
B. All four pairs of the cable are used
C. Power policing is enabled at the same time
D. The default level is used for the access point

300-415 q11

https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3850/software/release/3.2_0_se/multibook/configuration_guide/b_consolidated_config_guide_3850_chapter_011010.html

QUESTION 12:

Which configuration step is taken on vManage after WAN Edge list is uploaded to support the on-boarding process before the device comes online?

A. Verify the device certificate
B. Enable the ZTP process
C. Set the device as valid
D. Send the list to controllers

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/sd-wan-wan-edge-onboarding-deployguide-2020jan.pdf

Verify the answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12
CBABCADACIMAGEADC

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To earn Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification | Exam Materials

To earn the Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification, you must pass two exams, Core exam 350-201 CBRCOR and Concentration exam 300-215 CBRFIR:

Each of these exams will lead to a separate Specialist certification, although both exams must be passed to earn the Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification.

How do I earn the Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification?

Use the exam materials to help you successfully pass the Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification exam:

350-201 CBRCOR exam dumps material download: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-201.html

300-215 CBRFIR exam dumps material download: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-215.html

The real exam dumps include both PDF and VCE study tools, which you can see in the Lead4Pass exam dumps page, to help you achieve easy exam success.

Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification exam details:

Concentration exam 300-215 CBRFIR:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-215
Exam Name: Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBRFIR)
Certification: Cisco Certified CyberOps Specialist – CyberOps Forensic Analysis and Incident Response
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $300 USD

Core exam 350-201 CBRCOR:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 350-201
Exam Name: Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies (CBRCOR)
Certification: Cisco Certified CyberOps Specialist – CyberOps Core
Duration: 120 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $400 USD

Free to share some 350-201 CBRCOR online exam practice:

QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit. Rapid Threat Containment using Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) and ISE detects the threat of malware-infected 802.1x authenticated endpoints and places that endpoint into a quarantine VLAN using Adaptive Network Control policy.

Which method was used to signal ISE to quarantine the endpoints?

A. SNMP
B. syslog
C. REST API
D. pxGrid

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

An engineer is developing an application that requires frequent updates to close feedback loops and enable teams to quickly apply patches. The team wants their code updates to get to market as often as possible.

Which software development approach should be used to accomplish these goals?

A. continuous delivery
B. continuous integration
C. continuous deployment
D. continuous monitoring

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit. How must these advisories be prioritized for handling?

A. The highest priority for handling depends on the type of institution deploying the devices
B. Vulnerability #2 is the highest priority for every type of institution
C. Vulnerability #1 and vulnerability #2 have the same priority
D. Vulnerability #1 is the highest priority for every type of institution

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit. Where is the MIME type that should be followed indicated?

A. x-test-debug
B. strict-transport-security
C. x-xss-protection
D. x-content-type-options

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

A security architect is working in a processing center and must implement a DLP solution to detect and prevent any type of copy and paste attempts of sensitive data within unapproved applications and removable devices.

Which technical architecture must be used?

A. DLP for data in motion
B. DLP for removable data
C. DLP for data in use
D. DLP for data at rest

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.endpointprotector.com/blog/what-is-data-loss-prevention-dlp/

QUESTION 6:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the phases to evaluate the security posture of an asset from the left onto the activity that happens during the phases on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7:

DRAG DROP
An organization lost connectivity to critical servers, and users cannot access business applications and internal websites. An engineer checks the network devices to investigate the outage and determines that all devices are functioning. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to continue investigating this issue. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8:

What is a principle of Infrastructure as Code?

A. System maintenance is delegated to software systems
B. Comprehensive initial designs support robust systems
C. Scripts and manual configurations work together to ensure repeatable routines
D. System downtime is grouped and scheduled across the infrastructure

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

An employee abused PowerShell commands and script interpreters, which lead to an indicator of compromise (IOC) trigger. The IOC event shows that a known malicious file has been executed, and there is an increased likelihood of a breach.

Which indicator generated this IOC event?

A. ExecutedMalware.ioc
B. Crossrider.ioc
C. ConnectToSuspiciousDomain.ioc
D. W32 AccesschkUtility.ioc

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

Refer to the exhibit. Which indicator of compromise is represented by this STIX?

A. website redirecting traffic to ransomware server
B. website hosting malware to download files
C. web server vulnerability exploited by malware
D. cross-site scripting vulnerability to backdoor server

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

A security expert is investigating a breach that resulted in a $32 million loss from customer accounts. Hackers were able to steal API keys and two-factor codes due to a vulnerability that was introduced in a new code a few weeks before the attack.

Which step was missed that would have prevented this breach?

A. use of the Nmap tool to identify the vulnerability when the new code was deployed
B. implementation of a firewall and intrusion detection system
C. implementation of an endpoint protection system
D. use of SecDevOps to detect the vulnerability during development

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://securityintelligence.com/how-to-prioritize-security-vulnerabilities-in-secdevops/

QUESTION 12:

Which command does an engineer use to set read/write/execute access on a folder for everyone who reaches the resource?

A. chmod 666
B. chmod 774
C. chmod 775
D. chmod 777

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.pluralsight.com/blog/it-ops/linux-file-permissions

QUESTION 13:

An analyst is alerted for a malicious file hash. After analysis, the analyst determined that an internal workstation is communicating over port 80 with an external server and that the file hash is associated with Duqu malware.

Which tactics, techniques, and procedures align with this analysis?

A. Command and Control, Application Layer Protocol, Duqu
B. Discovery, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
C. Lateral Movement, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
D. Discovery, System Network Configuration Discovery, Duqu

Correct Answer: A

……

[PDF Download] 350-201 CBRCOR Online Exam Practice Free Download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1AWESvo5Beac9z16xeX9pw-cyNhDM0Cnc/

Tip: 300-215 CBRFIR online exam practice will not be shared temporarily, you can download the free demo in Lead4pass

Click here for the complete set of Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification exam materials.