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High quality Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about IPv6 Unique Local Addresses? (Choose Two.)
A. They are identical to IPv4 private addresses.
B. They use the prefix FC00::/7
C. They are defined by RFC 1884 D. They use the prefix FEC0::/10
E. They can be routed on the IPv6 global internet.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
What is a global command?
A. a command that is set once and affects the entire router
B. a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions
C. a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols
D. a command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status
E. a command that can be entered in any configuration mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?
A. ICANN
B. APNIC
C. RIR
D. ISPs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
how to see dhcp conflict?
A. show ip dhcp pool
B. show dhcp database
C. show ip dhcp conflict
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? 200-125 dumps (choose three)
A. reduced cost
B. better throughput
C. increased security
D. scalability
E. reduced latency
F. broadband incompatibility
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Which function allows EIGRP peers to receive notice of implementing topology changes?
A. successors
B. advertised changes
C. goodbye messages
D. expiration of the hold timer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which statement about SNMPv2 is true ?
A. Its privacy algorithms use MD5 encryption by default.
B. it requires passwords to be encrypyed
C. Its authetication and privacy algorithms are enable without default values.
D. It requires passwords at least eight characters en length.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which action can change the order of entries in a named access-list?
A. removing an entry
B. opening the access-list in notepad
C. adding an entry
D. resequencing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the extended traceroute command are true? (Choose two.)
A. It can be repeated automatically at a specified interval.
B. It can validate the reply data.
C. It can use a specified TTL value.
D. It can send packets from a specified interface or IP address.
E. It can use a specified ToS.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
200-125 dumps
What are the address that will show at the show ip route if we configure the above statements? (Choose Three.)
A. 10.0.0.0
B. 10.4.3.0
C. 172.15.4.0
D. 172.15.0.0
E. 192.168.4.0
F. 192.168.0.0
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 11
Which utility can you use to identify the cause of a traffic-flow blockage between two devices in a network?
A. ACL analysis tool in APIC-EM.
B. The ACL path analysis tool in APIC-EM
C. APIC-EM automation scheduler.
D. iWAN application.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about syslog loging are true?(Choose two.)
A. Syslog logging is disabled by default
B. Messages are stored in the internal memory of device
C. Messages can be erased when device reboots
D. Messages are stored external to the device
E. The size of the log file is dependenet on the resources of the device
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a switch? 200-125 dumps
A. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic
B. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
C. It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unkown tagged traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?
A. service timestamps log datetime localtimeandlt;input type
B. service timestamps debug datetime msecandlt;input type
C. service timestamps debug datetime localtimeandlt;input type
D. service timestamps log datetime msec
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which utility can you use to determine whether a switch can send echo requests and replies?
A. ping
B. traceroute
C. ssh
D. telnet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 17
Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device?
A. FHRP
B. DHCP
C. RSMLT
D. ESRP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports?
A. Trunk Ports
B. Access Ports
C. Dynamic Auto
D. Dynamic Desirable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an Ethernet interface?
A. There is a duplex mismatch.
B. The device at the other end of the connection is powered off.
C. The serial interface is disabled.
D. The interface is configured with the shutdown command.
E. Port security has disabled the interface.
F. The interface is fully functioning.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?
A. The local username password is encrypted in the configuration.
B. The enable secret is encrypted in the configuration.
C. The local username password is in clear text in the configuration.
D. The enable secret is in clear text in the configuration.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 22
CORRECT TEXT – (Topic 7)
A network associate is adding security to the configuration of the Corp1 router. The user on host C should be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server. No other hosts from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this server. Since there are multiple resources for the corporation at this location including other resources on the Finance Web Server, all other traffic should be allowed.
The task is to create and apply an access-list with no more than three statements that will allow ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. No other hosts will have web access to the Finance Web Server. All other traffic is permitted.
200-125 dumps
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host. All passwords have been temporarily set to andquot;ciscoandquot;. The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.247.65 The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.240.1 – 192.168.240.254 host A 192.168.240.1 host B 192.168.240.2 host C 192.168.240.3
A. Explanation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
If router R1 knows a static route to a destination network and then learn about the same destination network through a dynamic routing protocol, how does R1 respond?
A. It sends a withdrawal notification to the neighboring router.
B. It refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors.
C. It disables the routing protocol.
D. It prefers the static route.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted password and EXEC mode user privileges?
A. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 08314D5D1A48
B. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 PASSWORD1
C. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 08314D5D1A48
D. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 PASSWORD1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)
A. It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes.
B. It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
C. It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.
D. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
E. It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 26
What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)
A. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enabled.
B. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access.
C. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.
D. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.
E. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.
F. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 27
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. client
F. forwarding
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 28
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1, R2, and R3 with serial links. R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also connected to the routers R4 and R5.
The EIGRP routing protocol is configured. 200-125 dumps
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers.
Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
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Study the following output taken on R1:
R1# Ping 10.5.5.55 source 10.1.1.1
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.5.5.55, timeout is 2 seconds:
Packet sent with a source address of 10.1.1.1
…….
Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)
Why are the pings failing?
A. The network statement is missing on R5.
B. The loopback interface is shut down on R5.
C. The network statement is missing on R1.
D. The IP address that is configured on the Lo1 interface on R5 is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Refer to exhibit.
200-125 dumps
A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the cause of this failure?
A. A Level 5 password is not set.
B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.
C. The vty password is missing.
D. The console password is missing.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the router?
A. bootstrap
B. POST
C. mini-IOS
D. ROMMON mode
Correct Answer: A

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Real latest Microsoft 70-533 dumps exam questions and answers (1-10)

QUESTION 1
You administer an Azure Web Site named contosoweb that is used to sell various products.
Contosoweb experiences heavy traffic during weekends.
You need to analyze the response time of the product catalog page during peak times, from different locations.
What should you do?
A. Configure endpoint monitoring.
B. Add the Requests metric.
C. Turn on Failed Request Tracing.
D. Turn on Detailed Error Messages.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Endpoint monitoring configures web tests from geo-distributed locations that test response time and uptime of web URLs. The test performs an HTTP get operation on the web URL to determine the response time and uptime from each location. Each configured location runs a test every five minutes.
After you configure endpoint monitoring, you can drill down into the individual endpoints to view details response time and uptime status over the monitoring interval from each of the test location.

QUESTION 2
Your company network has two physical locations configured in a geo-clustered environment. You create a Blob storage account in Azure that contains all the data associated with your company.
You need to ensure that the data remains available in the event of a site outage.
Which storage option should you enable?
A. Locally redundant storage
B. Geo-redundant storage
C. Zone-redundant storage
D. Read-only geo-redundant storage
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Introducing Read-only Access to Geo Redundant Storage (RA-GRS):
RA-GRS allows you to have higher read availability for your storage account by providing “read only” access to the data replicated to the secondary location. Once you enable this feature, the secondary location may be used to achieve higher availability in the event the data is not available in the primary region. This is an “opt-in” feature which requires the storage account be geo-replicated.

QUESTION 3
You have a solution deployed into a virtual network in Azure named fabVNet. The fabVNet virtual network has three subnets named Apps, Web, and DB that are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibits button.)
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70-533 dumps
You want to deploy two new VMs to the DB subnet.
You need to modify the virtual network to expand the size of the DB subnet to allow more IP addresses.
Which three steps should you perform in sequence? 70-533 dumps To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
70-533 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-533 dumps
Explanation:
Box 1: Empty and delete the DB Subnet.
Box 2: Create the DB subnet to be larger.
Box 3: Recreate the Virtual Network as now required.
Note (which seems to indicate that only two steps would be required):
* Q: Can I modify my virtual network size after I created them?
A: You can add, remove, expand or shrink a subnet if there are no VMs or services deployed within it by using PowerShell cmdlets or the NETCFG file.
* Q: Can I modify subnets after I created them?
A: You can modify the subnet addresses as long as there are no services or VMs deployed within them by using PowerShell cmdlets or the NETCFG file. You cannot modify or delete a subnet once services or VMs have been deployed to it.

QUESTION 4
Your company has two cloud services named CS01 and CS02. You create a virtual machine (VM) in CS02 named Accounts.
You need to ensure that users in CS01 can access the Accounts VM by using port 8080.
What should you do?
A. Create a firewall rule.
B. Configure load balancing.
C. Configure port redirection.
D. Configure port forwarding.
E. Create an end point.
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
All virtual machines that you create in Azure can automatically communicate using a private network channel with other virtual machines in the same cloud service or virtual network. However, other resources on the Internet or other virtual networks require endpoints to handle the inbound network traffic to the virtual machine.

QUESTION 5
A company has an Azure subscription with four virtual machines (VM) that are provisioned in an availability set. The VMs support an existing web service. The company expects additional demand for the web service. You add 10 new VMs to the environment.
You need to configure the environment.
How many Update Domains (UDs) and Fault Domains (FDs) should you create?
A. 2 UDs and 5 FDs
B. 5 UDs and 2 FDs
C. 14 UDs and 2 FDs
D. 14 UDs and 14 FDs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You administer an Azure solution that uses a virtual network named FabVNet. FabVNet has a single subnet named Subnet-1.
You discover a high volume of network traffic among four virtual machines (VMs) that are part of Subnet-1.
You need to isolate the network traffic among the four VMs. 70-533 dumps You want to achieve this goal with the least amount of downtime and impact on users.
What should you do?
A. Create a new subnet in the existing virtual network and move the four VMs to the new subnet.
B. Create a site-to-site virtual network and move the four VMs to your datacenter.
C. Create a new virtual network and move the VMs to the new network.
D. Create an availability set and associate the four VMs with that availability set.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your company network includes users in multiple directories.
You plan to publish a software-as-a-service application named SaasApp1 to Azure Active Directory.
You need to ensure that all users can access SaasApp1.
What should you do?
A. Configure the Federation Metadata URL
B. Register the application as a web application.
C. Configure the application as a multi-tenant.
D. Register the application as a native client application.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
* When you get deeper into using Windows Azure Active Directory, you’ll run into new terminology. For instance, is called “directory” is also referred to as a Windows Azure AD Tenant or simply as “tenant.” This stems from the fact that WAAD ()Windows Azure Active Directory is a shared service for many clients. In this service, every client gets its own separate space for which the client is the tenant. In the case of WAAD this space is a directory. This might be a little confusing, because you can create multiple directories, in WAAD terminology multiple tenants, even though you are a single client.
* Multitenant Applications in Azure
A multitenant application is a shared resource that allows separate users, or “tenants,” to view the application as though it was their own. A typical scenario that lends itself to a multitenant application is one in which all users of the application may wish to customize the user experience but otherwise have the same basic business requirements. Examples of large multitenant applications are Office 365, Outlook.com, and visualstudio.com.

QUESTION 8
You administer two virtual machines (VMs) that are deployed to a cloud service. The VMs are part of a virtual network.
The cloud service monitor and virtual network configuration are configured as shown in the exhibits. (Click the Exhibits button.)
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70-533 dumps
You need to create an internal load balancer named fabLoadBalancer that has a static IP address of 172.16.0.100.
Which value should you use in each parameter of the Power Shell command?
To answer, drag the appropriate value to the correct location in the Power Shell command.
Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 9
Your company is launching a public website that allows users to stream videos.
You upload multiple video files to an Azure storage container.
You need to give anonymous users read access to all of the video files in the storage container.
What should you do?
A. Edit each blob’s metadata and set the access policy to Public Blob.
B. Edit the container metadata and set the access policy to Public Container.
C. Move the files into a container sub-directory and set the directory access level to Public Blob.
D. Edit the container metadata and set the access policy to Public Blob.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You manage a cloud service that hosts a customer-facing application. 70-533 dumps The application allows users to upload images and create collages. The cloud service is running in two medium instances and utilizes Azure Queue storage for image processing. The storage account is configured to be locally redundant.
The sales department plans to send a newsletter to potential clients. As a result, you expect a significant increase in global traffic.
You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements:
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Configure the cloud service to run in two Large instances.
B. Configure the cloud service to auto-scale to three instances when processor utilization is above 80%.
C. Configure the storage account to be geo-redundant
D. Deploy a new cloud service in a separate data center. Use Azure Traffic Manager to load balance traffic between the cloud services.
E. Configure the cloud service to auto-scale when the queue exceeds 1000 entries per machine.
Correct Answer: B,E

Explanation:
* An autoscaling solution reduces the amount of manual work involved in dynamically scaling an application. It can do this in two different ways: either preemptively by setting constraints on the number of role instances based on a timetable, or reactively by adjusting the number of role instances in response to some counter(s) or measurement(s) that you can collect from your application or from the Azure environment.

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: An administrator plans to troubleshoot connections to the SSL virtual server configured on the NetScaler by using the WireShark tool. The administrator created a network trace file.
What will the administrator need to decrypt the network trace?
A. NS-root key
B. NS-server key
C. Private key of the root certification authority
D. Private key of the certificate that is bound to the virtual server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A number of administrators received the following error when they attempted to connect to the Configuration Utility using a secured HTTPS connection:
The site’s security certificate is not trusted!
One of the administrators installed a certificate from a trusted Certificate Authority on the NetScaler and is planning to configure the Configuration Utility to use this certificate.
Which NetScaler command must the administrator run at the command-line interface to configure the Configuration Utility with the new certificate?
A. set ssl service
B. set ssl vserver
C. bind ssl service
D. bind ssl vserver
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A company currently has a working production XenApp and NetScaler environment. An administrator recently implemented a test NetScaler environment and tried to duplicate the NetScaler Gateway configuration from the production environment in the test environment. When the administrator configured the Secure Ticket Authority in the test environment, the Secure Ticket Authority showed a DOWN state. The administrator verified that the Secure Ticket Authority state shows as UP on the production NetScaler.
What should the administrator check to troubleshoot the issue?
A. NetScaler route table
B. NetScaler Gateway Resources
C. NetScaler Gateway Session Profiles
D. Secure Ticket Authority server IP address
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
When a user launches a published version of Notepad, the user receives the following error message:
“Cannot connect to the Citrix XenApp server.SSL Error: The proxy denied access to 10; STA393B6A5D1088; 9764757E39D0BEBB0BFC66E9EE146FF4 port 1494.” 1Y0-250 dumps
What could be the cause of this error message?
A. Web Interface CANNOT reach the XML broker.
B. Web Interface CANNOT reach the XenApp server.
C. NetScaler Gateway CANNOT reach the XenApp server.
D. NetScaler Gateway CANNOT reach the Secure Ticket Authority server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Scenario: An administrator configured link load balancing to balance outbound traffic between two Internet Service Providers. When testing the configuration, the administrator notices NetScaler is unable to connect to any external addresses.
Which mode should the administrator verify is enabled?
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 2
C. Use Subnet IP
D. Use Source IP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Scenario: For auditing requirements, NetScaler administrators are required to use their Active Directory accounts to log on to NetScaler. All NetScaler administrators belong to the NSAdmins Active Directory group.
Which configuration must an administrator create in NetScaler to meet the requirements of the scenario?
A. User accounts
B. NSAdmins group
C. Authorization policy
D. Service Groups policy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Scenario: An administrator is implementing a two-factor authentication solution with an RSA SecureID product. The administrator already has the server name and port number of the RSA server.
Which additional information does the administrator need to configure RSA SecureID?
A. LDAP password
B. Firewall access rule
C. Authentication policy
D. RADIUS shared secret
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator is creating a NetScaler Gateway virtual server for mobile devices only.
The administrator must include two-factor authentication.
Which two steps must the administrator take to configure two-factor authentication for this environment? (Choose two.)
A. Bind the RSA policy first.
B. Bind the LDAP policy first.
C. Create an authentication policy.
D. Create a pre-authentication policy.
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 9
Scenario: An administrator implemented RADIUS with NetScaler Gateway as a two-factor authentication solution for a XenDesktop implementation. A planned outage is scheduled in wake of a software upgrade on the RADIUS infrastructure. During the outage, the administrator needs to disable the two-factor authentication on NetScaler Gateway to enable users’ continued access to published applications. 1Y0-250 dumps
Which action could the administrator take to meet the needs of the scenario without affecting the connected users?
A. Delete the RADIUS authentication policy.
B. Set the RADIUS policy to be secondary authentication.
C. Disable authentication on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
D. Unbind the RADIUS authentication policy from the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
In which format should an administrator save the AppExpert Template files in order to import and upload to the NetScaler?
A. XML
B. ASP
C. CSV
D. HTML
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A company had a single datacenter location with a single NetScaler installed. A second datacenter location was added and an administrator installed a second Citrix NetScaler at the second datacenter location. The NetScaler is used for load balancing internal infrastructure solutions.
The administrator plans to configure the environment so that it will continue to work even if there is a datacenter failure. Only the primary datacenter location is connected to the Internet. The configuration has to be synchronized automatically so that the configuration of both appliances is always identical.
How should the administrator configure the NetScaler devices so that continuity is maintained in the event of a datacenter failure?
A. As a GSLB cluster
B. In a VRRP configuration
C. As a high availability pair
D. As standalone appliances
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator notices that a NetScaler high availability (HA) pair has changed the primary node several times in the past few days due to intermittent issues.
What could the administrator configure to ensure that HA failures are alerted?
A. SNMP
B. Syslog
C. Route Monitors
D. Failover Interface Set
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which command-line interface command could an administrator use to display communication between the LDAP server and the NetScaler system? 1Y0-250 dumps
A. cat /etc/krb5.conf
B. cat /etc/krb5.keytab
C. cat /tmp/aaad.debug
D. cat /var/log/aaad.debug
E. tail -f /var/log/aaad.debug
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Scenario: An administrator configured an LDAP authentication policy and bound it globally. The only system group configured on the Netscaler is NS_Admins. After reviewing the security logs, the administrator notices that users in the External_Contractors LDAP group are able to log on to NetScaler using SSH; however, members of the External_Contractors group are NOT authorized to run any commands.
Which action could the administrator take to prevent the members of the External_Contractors LDAP Group from logging on to NetScaler using SSH without affecting other users?
A. Configure an authorization policy that allows logon only by members of the “External_Contractors” LDAP Group. Bind the new policy globally.
B. Specify (memberOf=”CN=External_Contractors, CN=Groups, CN=example, CN=com”) as a filter in the properties of the configured LDAP server.
C. Specify (!(memberOf=”CN=External_Contractors, CN=Groups, CN=example, CN=com”)) as a filter in the properties of the configured LDAP server.
D. Create a new command policy with a DENY action. Create a System Group named “External_Contractors” and assign the new command policy to the External_Contractors group.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
After restarting one node on a two-node NetScaler cluster, an administrator notices that the node that was restarted no longer accepts traffic.
Which action could the administrator take to resolve this issue?
A. Run the nsconmsg -g feature -d stats from the shell.
B. Run the sync cluster files command from the command-line interface.
C. Replace the cluster license file and restart the NetScaler software only.
D. Restart the NetScaler software and operating system for the failing node.
Correct Answer: C

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[2018 Newest] Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-883 Dumps Exam Training Resources And Youtube Update

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642-883 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about a transit AS are correct? (Choose two.)
A. A transit AS has eBGP connection(s) to only one external AS.
B. Routes between ASs are always exchanged via eBGP.
C. A transit AS uses an IGP like OSPF or ISIS to propagate the external networks within the transit AS.
D. Core routers within a transit AS normally use default routing to reach the external networks.
E. iBGP sessions can be established between non directly connected routers.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2
When using the show bgp ipv6 unicast summary command to verify the IPv6 BGP session status with the IPv6 BGP peers, you noticed the “St/PfxRcd” status for one of the IPv6 BGP peers is in the “Active” state. What does the “Active” state indicate?
A. The IPv6 BGP session has been established with the IPv6 BGP peer.
B. The router is in the process of sending BGP routing updates to the IPv6 BGP peer.
C. The router is in the process of establishing the IPv6 BGP session with the IPv6 BGP peer.
D. The router is exchanging BGP notification messages with its IPv6 BGP peer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When configuring IPv4 and IPv6 IS-IS routing on Cisco IOS XR routers, which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. By default, a single SPF is used for both IPv4 and IPv6, so the IPv4 and IPv6 topology should be the same.
B. By default, the IS-IS router type is Level 1 and Level 2.
C. All IS-IS routers within the same IS-IS area must be configured with the same IS-IS routing process instance ID.
D. By default, metric-style narrow is used.
E. By default, the IS-IS interface circuit type is Level 1 and Level 2.
F. The area IS-IS address-family configuration command is used to specify the IS-IS area address.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 4
In which network environment is IS-IS adjacency check important? 642-883 dumps
A. in a multitopology environment where there are different instances of IS-IS running on the same router
B. in an IPv4/IPv6 environment and running single-topology IS-IS
C. when a level L1/L2 IS-IS router is neighboring with a Level 1 only or Level 2 only router
D. when IS-IS neighbors are in an NBMA environment like over Frame Relay
E. when IS-IS neighbors are in a broadcast environment like an Ethernet LAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is function of the RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE1(config-ospf)#distance Cisco IOS-XR command?
A. To modify the administrative distance of the OSPF routes
B. To modify the default seed metric of the OSPF external routes
C. To modify the OSPF default reference bandwidth
D. To modify the OSPF cost
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a characteristic of dual-multihomed connectivity between an enterprise network and the service provider network or networks?
A. An enterprise network that is connected to two or more different service providers with two or more links per service provider and using BGP to exchange routing updates with the service providers.
B. Each service provider announces a default route on each of the links that connect to the customer with a different metric.
C. An enterprise network announces a default route to each service provider.
D. Load balancing can be achieved using the maximum-paths command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
R1 and XR2 cannot establish OSPF adjacency. Which option is the root cause of this issue?
A. stub flag mismatch
B. mismatched passwords
C. process ID mismatch
D. mismatched authentication types
E. MTU mismatch
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which three BGP configuration groupings are supported on Cisco IOS XR Software? 642-883 dumps (Choose three.)
A. peer-group
B. af-group
C. bgp-group
D. session-group
E. neighbor-group
F. as-group
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 9
Which two features are specific only to Tier 3 providers? (Choose two.)
A. interconnects with Tier Level 1 and Tier Level 2 ISPs in public peering points
B. only purchases transit from other networks to reach the Internet
C. purchases transit and pays settlements to other service providers
D. uses strict route filtering to allow only customer and local routes to be sent to upstream providers
E. receives a full Internet routing table via BGP from its upstream provider, which it can use for loadbalancing traffic
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
A service provider is running BGP with clients at the edge of the network. The service provider sees that routing updates from one site are being dropped when the other site receives them.
Which feature fixes this issue?
A. EBGP multihop
B. inter-AS peering
C. AS-override
D. allow-AS in
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What are two purposes of the BGP scan-time command? (Choose two.)
A. to tune the BGP process which walks the BGP table and confirms the reachability of next hops
B. to allow faster detection of downed BGP peers
C. to improve BGP convergence time
D. to tune the BGP update interval
E. to decrease the effects of unstable routes by increasing the route suppression time
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
When implementing OSPF, which type of networks require DR/BDR election?
A. point-to-point networks
B. mutli-access broadcast networks
C. non-broadcast multi-access networks (Hub and Spoke Frame Relay) using point-to-multipoint OSPF network type
D. All networks type
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
XR1 must have XR4 as the primary exit point for only the first three subnets received from AS 100 and may not impact the rest of the subnets. Which configuration on XR1 is correct?
A. prefix-set PREFER
100.100.100.0/30 le 32
route-policy LP
if destination in PREFER then set local-preference 200 endif
B. route-policy LP
if destination in (100.100.100.0/30 le 32) then set local- preference 200 else pass endif
C. prefix-set PREFER
100.100.100.0/29 le 32
route-policy LP
if destination in PREFER then set local-preference 200 else pass endif
D. route-policy LP
if destination in (100.100.100.0/29 le 32) then set local preference 200 else set local-preference 100
endif
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which BGP attribute is a set of generic tags that can be used to signal various routing policies between BGP routers? 642-883 dumps
A. AS path
B. MED
C. weight
D. communities
E. route tags
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which reserved AS number or range of numbers is used for backward compatibility between old BGP peers using 16-bit AS number and new BGP peers using 32-bit AS number?
A. AS 65001 to 65535
B. AS 65512 to 65535
C. AS 12345
D. AS 23456
E. AS 64001
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which two OSPF network scenarios require OSPF virtual link configuration? (Choose two.)
A. to connect an OSPF non-backbone area to area 0 through another non-backbone area
B. to connect an NSSA area to an external routing domain
C. to connect two parts of a partitioned backbone area through a non-backbone area
D. to enable route leaking from Level 2 into Level 1
E. to enable route leaking from Level 1 into Level 2
F. to enable OSPF traffic engineering
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
Which value must be configured when redistributing OSPFv2 into RIP?
A. metric
B. bandwidth
C. delay
D. MTU
E. reliability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
When troubleshooting OSPF neighbor errors, which three verification steps should be considered? (Choose three.)
A. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured in the same area.
B. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same OSPF process ID.
C. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same OSPF priority.
D. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same hello and dead intervals.
E. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same area type.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 19
Which three statements are true regarding the OSPF router ID? 642-883 dumps (Choose three.)
A. The OSPF routing process chooses a router ID for itself when it starts up.
B. The router-id command is the preferred procedure to set the router ID.
C. If a loopback interface is configured, its address will always be preferred as the router ID over any other methods.
D. After the router ID is set, it does not change, even if the interface that the router is using for the router ID goes down. The router ID changes only if the router reloads or if the OSPF routing process restarts.
E. In OSPF version 3, the OSPF router ID uses a 128-bit number.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 20
What are two purposes of the BGP scan-time command? (Choose two.)
A. to tune the BGP process which walks the BGP table and confirms the reachability of next hops
B. to allow faster detection of downed BGP peers
C. to improve BGP convergence time
D. to tune the BGP update interval
E. to decrease the effects of unstable routes by increasing the route suppression time
Correct Answer: AC

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[2018 Newest] Microsoft MCSE 70-412 Dumps Exam Training Resources And Youtube Demo Update

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70-412 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains two Hyper-V hosts named Host1 and Host2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Host1 contains a virtual machine named VM1.
You plan to move VM1 to Host2.
You need to generate a report that lists any configuration issues on Host2 that will prevent VM1 from being moved successfully.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Move-VM
B. Test-VHD
C. Debug-VM
D. Compare-VM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1. You have a certificate template named UserAutoEnroll that is based on the User certificate template. Domain users are configured to autoenroll for UserAutoEnroll. A user named User1 has an email address defined in Active Directory. A user named User2 does not have an email address defined in Active Directory. You discover that User1 was issued a certificate based on UserAutoEnroll template automatically. A request by user2 for a certificate based on the UserAutoEnroll template fails. You need to ensure that all users can autoenroll for certificated based on the UserAutoEnroll template. Which setting should you configure from the properties on the UserAutoEnroll certificate template?
A. Issuance Requirements
B. Request Handling
C. Cryptography
D. Subject Name
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your organization is deploying a second Active Directory forest because a substantial number of users need to access a resource that requires significant changes to the Active Directory schema, which are not compatible with your current forest’s schema.
You want users in your forest to be able to access any resource in any domain in the new forest.
Which of the following should you do to accomplish this goal?
A. Configure a forest trust.
B. Configure an external trust.
C. Create a shortcut trust.
D. Configure name suffix routing.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains two child domains and six domain controllers. 70-412 dumps
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-412 dumps
You need to add an additional UPN Suffix.
What should you use?
A. Set-ADSite
B. Set-ADReplicationSite
C. Set-ADDomain
D. Set-ADReplicationSiteLink
E. Set-ADGroup
F. Set-ADForest
G. Netdom
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 5
You are employed as a network administrator at contoso.com.
Contoso.com has an active directory domain named contoso.com.
All servers on the contoso.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
Contoso.com has a server named server1,which is configured as a file server.
You have been instructed to enabled a feature that discovers and eradicates duplication within data without compromising its reliability or accuracy.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider having the Data Deduplication feature enabled.
B. You should consider having the Storage Spaces feature enabled.
C. You should consider having the Storage Management feature enabled.
D. You should consider having the folder redirection feature enabled.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You want to enable key archiving on a CA.
You need to issue a certificate from a specific template to the user who will recover private keys.
Which certificate template will you use as the basis for this certificate?
A. Kerberos authentication
B. Code signing
C. OCSP response signing
D. Key recovery agent
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You are employed as a senior network administrator at ABC.com.
ABC.com has an Active Directory domain named ABC.com.
All servers on the ABC.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
ABC.com has two servers,named SERVER1 and SERVER2 which are configured in a two- node failover cluster.
Server1 includes a folder,named ABCAppData,which is configured as a Distributed File System (DFS) name space folder target.
After configuring another two nodes in the failover cluster, you are instructed to make sure that access to ABC AppData is highly available.
You also have to make sure that application data is replicated to ABCAppData via DFS replication.
Which following actions should you take ?
A. You should consider configuring a scale-out File Server
B. You should consider configuring the replication settings for the cluster
C. You should consider configuring a file server for general use
D. You should consider configuring the Quorum settings
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. 70-412 dumps The domain contains two domain controllers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-412 dumps
The Branch site contains a perimeter network.
For security reasons, client computers in the perimeter network can communicate with client computers in the Branch site only.
You plan to deploy a new RODC to the perimeter network in the Branch site.
You need to ensure that the new RODC will be able to replicate from DC10.
What should you do first on DC10?
A. Run dcpromo and specify the /createdcaccount parameter.
B. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard.
C. Run the Add-ADDSReadOnlyDomainControllerAccount cmdlet.
D. Enable the Bridge all site links setting.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012. One of the domain controllers is named DC1.
The DNS zone for the contoso.com zone is Active Directory-integrated and has the default settings.
A server named Server1 is a DNS server that runs a UNIX-based operating system.
You plan to use Server1 as a secondary DNS server for the contoso.com zone.
You need to ensure that Server1 can host a secondary copy of the contoso.com zone.
What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerForwarder cmdlet and specify the contoso.com zone as a target.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerSetting cmdlet and specify DC1 as a target.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone cmdlet and specify the contoso.com zone as a target.
D. From DNS Manager, modify the Advanced settings of DC1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1. A Microsoft Azure Backup of Server1 is created automatically every day.
You rename Server1 to Server2. you discover that backups are no longer created in Azure.
You need to backup the server to Azure.
What should you do?
A. From the Azure Management Portal, upload the Server2 certificae as a management certificate.
B. On Server2, run the Start-OBRegistration cmdlet.
C. On Server2, run the Add-WBBackupTarget cmdlet.
D. From the Azure Management Portal, modify the configuration on the backup vault.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and uses Windows Server Backup.
You need to identify whether the backups performed on Server1 support bare metal recovery.
Which cmdlet should you run? 70-412 dumps
A. Get-OBMachineSetting
B. GetWBVSSBackupOption
C. Get-WBPolicy
D. Get-OBPolicy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which permission should you assign on a CA to a group of users that you want to be able to respond to certificate requests but you do not want to provide them with the ability to change CA security settings?
A. Read
B. Issue And Manage Certificates
C. Manage CA
D. Request Certificates
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You have a subscription to Windows Azure.
You need to register the Microsoft Azure Backup Agent on Server1.
What should you do first?
A. Install the Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM) agent.
B. Create a backup vault.
C. Create Site Recovery vault.
D. Configure a passphrase for the Azure Backup Agent.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a main office and a branch office. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Both servers have the DHCP Server server role installed. Server1 is located in the main office site.
Server2 is located in the branch office site. Server1 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site.
Server2 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site. You need to ensure that if either Server1 or Server2 are offline, the client computers can still obtain IPv4 addresses.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
The storage location of the DHCP databases must not be a single point of failure. Server1 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site only if Server2 is offline.
Server2 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site only if Server1 is offline.
Which configuration should you use?
A. load sharing mode failover partners
B. a failover cluster
C. hot standby mode failover partners
D. a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
An administrator installs the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature on a server named Server2.
The administrator configures IPAM by using Group Policy based provisioning and starts server discovery.
You plan to create Group Policies for IPAM provisioning.
You need to identify which Group Policy object (GPO) name prefix must be used for IPAM Group Policies.
What should you do on Server2?
A. From Server Manager, review the IPAM overview.
B. Run the ipamgc.exe tool.
C. From Task Scheduler, review the IPAM tasks.
D. Run the Get-IpamConfiguration cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D

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The 2018 CompTIA Security Certification Bundle, The Most Respected IT Certification Exams

The world is increasingly interconnected. This means that businesses are scrambling to fill top IT positions and pay high salaries for those with large data systems and security planning skills.

However, since competition for these high-paying jobs is intense, you need to prove what you need to work in the IT Express lane. The world-renowned CompTIA certification is the industry’s most respected certification. CompTIA Safety Certification Kit 2018 will train you through the CompTIA Safety +, CSA + and CASP exams for just $ 29, up from 95% above normal prices.

The first module focuses on preparing for the CompTIA Security + exam. You will have access to 20 hours of content throughout your life, which will introduce you to the types of threats, network vulnerabilities, management tools, and more.
CompTIA
This is why the need for IT professionals proficient in cybersecurity is high – but only if they have the proper certification. With the 2018 CompTIA Security Certification Kit, you can quickly add your own demand rankings by preparing to take three leading IT certification exams at a fraction of the cost.

Preparing for the CompTIA CSA + exam preparation for your second course will walk you through the various details of the vendor neutral cybersecurity platform and teach you how to identify and fight malware and how to deter advanced persistent threats.

This 57-hour collection is divided into three sections. First, you will take the CompTIA Security + SY0-501 exam. This course covers the basic principles of cybersecurity and risk management and will help you to explore various types of threats, attacks and vulnerabilities.
CompTIA
You will then continue with the CompTIA CSA + exam, which focuses on applying behavioral analytics to improve the overall state of IT security.

CompTIA chief executive Kelly Ricker said at a press conference that CompTIA Plus offers something for professionals at all levels. Ricker said: “The educational content that is planned for CompTIA Plus is relevant to IT professionals across the entire career, from recent hiring to experienced veterans.

The CompTIA Plus test is open to technical professionals of all backgrounds, but this can be very rewarding for CompTIA members or for CompTIA certification (or both). CompTIA-specific news and updates will be available throughout the day and you can re-certify CEU Credits by joining.
CompTIA
Finally, the third module prepares you for the CompTIA CASP exam, which focuses on advanced safety skills and knowledge. With easy-to-understand modules, you’ll learn about the needs and technical skills that drive IT innovation and keep your company and government safe.

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Comparative Analysis Citrix Systems (CTXS) and SS & C Technology (SSNC)

Citrix Systems Inc. (NASDAQ: CTXS) and SS & C Technologies Inc. (NASDAQ: SSNC) are mid-sized technology companies, but is this a good stock? We compare the two companies based on their return, risk, institutional ownership, valuation, analyst recommendation, dividend and profitability.

94.4% of Citrix Systems is owned by institutional investors. 86.7% of SS & C Technologies’ shares are owned by institutional investors. 0.4% of Citrix Systems shares are owned by insiders. 17.6% of SS & C Technologies’ shares are owned by insiders. Strong institutional ownership means endowment, big fund managers and hedge funds think the stock is ready for long-term growth.
Citrix
Risk and volatility
The Citrix beta of 1.41 means that its stock price is 41% higher than the S & P 500. In contrast, SS & C Technologies’ beta is 1.08, which means its stock price is 8% higher than the S & P 500.

Valuation and earnings
The table compares Citrix Systems and SS & C Technologies’ earnings, earnings per share (EPS) and valuation. Citrix Systems has higher revenue and revenue than SS & C technology. The price-earnings ratio for Citrix Systems is lower than SS & C Technologies, indicating that the current prices of both stocks are more affordable.

Dividends
SS & C Technologies pays a dividend of $ 0.28 a share, yielding a dividend yield of 0.7% per annum. Citrix Systems does not pay dividends. SS & C Technologies paid 26.7% of its revenue in the form of dividends.

Analysts recommend
This is a summary of the current ratings from Citrix Systems and SS & C Technologies, courtesy of MarketBeat.com. The current consensus consensus for Citrix Systems is $ 89.50, indicating a potential gain of 2.70%. The target price for SS & C Technologies is $ 43.33, indicating a potential upside of 4.44%. Given SS & C Technologies’ higher consensus rating and higher probability of upside, analysts clearly believe SS & C Technologies is better than Citrix Systems.

Profitability
This table compares the net profit margin, return on equity and return on assets of Citrix Systems and SS & C Technologies.

Summary
Citrix Systems outperformed the SS & C technology in 10 out of 17 factors compared to the two stocks.
Citrix
Citrix Systems Company Profile
Citrix Systems, Inc. provides enterprise and service provider products, including work area service solutions and delivery network products. The company’s enterprise and service provider offerings include cloud service solutions, along with related license update and maintenance, support and professional services. The company’s NetScaler nCore technology is an architecture that can execute multiple packet engines in parallel.

The company’s workspace services include application virtualization and virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI), enterprise mobility management and Citrix workspace suites. The company’s NetScaler ADC is a software-defined Application Delivery Controller (ADC) and load balancer. The company’s cloud services include ShareFile and Citrix Cloud. It offers customers a variety of ways to receive product upgrades, support and maintenance, including software maintenance, ordering advantages, technical support services and hardware maintenance.
Citrix
SS&C Technologies Company Profile
SS & C Technologies Holdings, Inc. is a holding company. The company is a provider of software products and software support services that allow financial services providers to automate complex business processes and manage their information processing requirements.

The company’s portfolio of software products and software services enables its customers to automate and integrate front-end functions such as transaction and modeling, middle-tier functions such as portfolio management and reporting, and back-office functions such as accounting, performance measurement, reconciliation, reporting, Processing and settlement. The company provides solutions to more than 11,000 customers worldwide, including institutional assets and wealth management, alternative investment management, financial advisory and vertical markets for financial institutions. Its product portfolio includes over 90 product and support software services.

Reference: https://www.dispatchtribunal.com/2017/12/13/analyzing-ssc-technologies-ssnc-and-citrix-systems-ctxs.html

Microsoft And Qualcomm’s Always Connected PC To Be Most Successful

Now with so many people using tablets and smartphones, laptops are likely to be outdated in the future. If it depends on Microsoft and Qualcomm, this situation will not happen soon. More specifically, both companies announced their Always Connected line of personal computers. This is an interesting thing to see, although the market for such devices is yet to be seen.

While it may be convenient to use a smartphone or tablet for productivity purposes, they will never truly replace laptops. The disadvantage of most laptops is their lack of battery life, which can be troublesome without the WiFi hotspot. There are always ways to get around these problems, but for the average consumer, they are a huge drawback. Microsoft and Qualcomm acknowledge that change is also needed in this area.

Their new line of personal computers is called the Always Connected series. These devices run Windows 10 and can open in seconds and will always have an LTE connection ready for use. More importantly, their battery life is measured in days instead of hours.
Microsoft news
On the surface, there is nothing that dislikes these devices, as they seem to have checked many correct boxes for people who travel frequently. In addition, some of the largest computer makers will start building hardware for this new product line, which should introduce some competition in this market.

At the same time, it feels like it used to be the same. Microsoft tried to introduce people to ARM devices running Windows using Surface RT tablets. Sadly, these tablets never reach too much because they are expensive and do not provide the solution most people are looking for. It’s commendable to see Microsoft running again in this market without having to create a tablet at this time. Instead, connect the computer forever and look and feel like a small laptop, which is a good place to start.
Microsoft news
Using a Qualcomm chipset to power Windows 10 computers is not a new idea. Microsoft hinted this development a year ago, though not much news came. The only major development is the demonstration of Win32 applications running on this hardware, but very quiet after the fact. Although the new equipment is not yet in production, it will be available in the spring of 2018. The price has not yet been announced, it is only expected.

According to Microsoft, the selling points for these devices include instant-on screens. This seems to confirm that these devices lack sleep patterns, but this should not negatively affect battery life. Built-in LTE is also very interesting, but if this is the feature consumers are willing to use remains to be seen.
Microsoft news
Moreover, charging these devices once a week should be more than enough. All of these points sound great, but we will have to await real-life tests to make sure the devices can deliver on their promise.

Since the device natively supports Win32 applications, most users should not have problems running their favorite tools. They support Paint, Office, Minecraft and anything else that one can think of. The default browser is Edge, though most people may replace it with something else in the future. The initial operating system will be Windows 10 S, but upgrading to Windows 10 Pro will be provided free of charge. This is a nice performance for Microsoft because Windows 10 S is too limited for many people.

Reference: https://themerkle.com/microsoft-and-qualcomm-unveil-lte-enabled-always-connected-pcs/