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The latest Cisco CCIE 400-101 exam dumps and exercises test questions and answers, These free exercises will help you improve 400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching test skills, We share 400-101 pdf for free to download and learn, and you can also watch 400-101 YouTube videos online! We share 40 real effective exam questions and answers for free if you want to get the full 400-101 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-101.html (Total questions:283 Q&A)->> updated throughout the year! Make sure you pass the exam easily!
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QUESTION 1 Which three message type are used for prefix delegation in DHCPv6?(Choose threE. A. Solicit B. Renew C. Advertise D. DHCP Discover E. DHCPAck F. DHCP Offer Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 2 Which option describes how a VTPv3 device responds when it detects a VTPv2 device on a trunk port? A. It sends VTPv2 packets only B. It sends a Special packet that contains VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets information. C. It sends VTPv3 packets only. D. It sends VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Refer to exhibit. Which statement is true about a valid IPv6 address that can be configured on tunnel interface0 ? A. 2001:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address B. 6to4 tunneling allows you to use any IPv6 address C. 2002:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPV6 address D. There is not enough information to calculate the IPv6 address Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which statement about passive interfaces is true? A. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-state protocol data units B. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange of hello packets. C. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as a not-so-stubby network. D. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which two protocols exclude the source and destination IPaddresses from the application data stream? (Choose two) A. TFTP B. NTP C. SMTP D. SSH E. SNMP Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 6 From which component does an IS-IS router construct its link-state database? A. LSAs B. Hello packets C. LSPs D. SPTs Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 R1#sh ip eigrp top all IP-EIGRP Topology Table for AS (192.168.13.1) Codes: P – Passive, A – Active, U – Update, Q- Query, R – Reply, r – reply Status, s – sia Status P 10.0.0.0/8, 1 successors, FD is 3586560, serno 8 via 192.168.1.5 (3586560/3074560), Serial0/0 P 192.168.100.0/24, 2 successors, FD is 409600, serno 5 via 192.168.13.3 (409600/128256), FastEthernet0/1 via 192.168.12.3 (435200/409600), FastEthernet0/0 Refer to the exhibit. Which statements about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true? A. The metric installed into the route table is 128256 B. The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600 C. The metric installed into the route table is 435200 D. The Reported Distance for the Successor is 128256 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two) A. low-latency queuing B. congestion-avoidance algorithm C. fast retransmission D. IP service level agreements E. fast start F. fast recovery Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9 Which statements about PMTUD is true? A. GRE tunnels use PMTUD to fragment data packets by default. B. It increases the connection\\’s send MSS value to prevent fragmentation. C. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets at the endpoint of a TCP connection D. It is supported by TCP and UDP E. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets traveling across a smaller MTU link between Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 10 Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.) A. lt supports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention. B. It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only. C. lt supports unicast address families for 1Pv4 and 1Pv6 D. lt supports only one address family per instance. E. It supports multicast address families for 1Pv4 F. lt supports multicast address families for 1Pv6 Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11 Which two statements about SSM are true? (Choose two) A. It requires IGMPv3 for source filtering. B. It can work in conjunction with the ISM service. C. It uses the group address range 233.0.0.0 – 233.255.255.255 by default D. It is designed to support many-to-many applications within a PIM domain. E. It uses (*, G) multicast routing entries to make forwarding decisions. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12 An NSSA area has two ABRs connected to Area 0. Which statement is true? A. Both ABRs translate Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs B. The ABR with the highest router ID translates Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs C. No LSA translation is needed D. Both ABRs forward Type-5 LSAs from the NSSA area to backbone area Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Which three statements correctly describe the encoding used by NETCONF and RESTCONF? (Choose three) A. RESTCONF uses JSON-encoded data B. RESTCONF uses YAML-encoded data C. RESTCONF uses XML-encoded data D. NETCONF uses JSON-encoded data E. NETCONF uses YAML-encoded data F. NETCONF uses XML-encoded data Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 14Refer to the exhibit. The route-map wau2sitc is being used for redistributing BGP routes into the eigrp 28 process. Which option best describes the resulting redistribution of routes? A. The deny, sequence 5 is preventing any routes from and a lag B. A default routes is being redistributed with a metric and a tag C. all routes are being redistributed with a metric and a tag D. policy routing matches: 0 packets means that there are no matches and no routes are being redistributed Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15 Which two statement about VPLS are true? (Choose two) A. Split horizon is used on PE devices to prevent loops. B. IP is used to switch Ethernet frames between sites. C. Spanning tree is extended from CE to CE D. VPLS extends a layer 2 broadcast domain. E. PE routers dynamic associate to peers. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 16 Which two statements about IS-IS authentication are true ?(Choose two.) A. Level 2 LSPs transmit the password encrypted inside the IS-IS PDU. B. Area and domain authentication must be configured together. C. Passwords can be configured on a per-interface basis. D. If LSP authentication is in use , unauthorized devices can form neighbor adjacencies. E. Lever 1 LSPs use the domain password. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 17 Refer to the exhibit.
If the route to 10.1.1.1 is removed from the R2 routing table, which server becomes the master NTP server? A. R2 B. the NTP server at 10.3.3.3 C. the NTP server at 10.4.4.4 D. the NTP server with the lowest stratum number Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two) A. The priority queue is disabled B. Queue 1 is served twice as fast as queue 2 C. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 1/3 of the available bandwidth D. Queue 2 is served twice as fast as queue 1 E. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 2/3 of the available bandwidth F. Queue 1 is allocated 2 percent of the available bandwidth and queue 2 is allocated 2 percent of the available bandwidth Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 19 What are three of the key fields that define a unique NetFlow flow ( choose three) A. Source MAC address B. Cyclic Redundancy Check C. Layer 3 protocol type D. Type of service E. Input logical interface F. Canonical Format Identifier Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 20 Which three technologies can be used to implement redundancy for IPv6? (Choose three. A. IPv6 NA B. NHRP C. HSRP D. DVMRP E. GLBP F. IPv6 RA Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 21 Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type-3 LSAs? (Choose three A. metric B. link state C. subnet mask D. IP subnet E. authentication type F. external route tag Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 22 Which two operating modes does VPLS support? (Choose two) A. Transport mode B. Loose mode C. VLAN mode D. Strict mode E. Port mode F. Dynamic mode Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 23 Which IP SLA operation type is enhanced by lhe use of the IP SL.As Responder? A. ICMP Echo B. UDP Echo C. DNS D. HTTP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24 Which two values are required to implement an EIGRP named configurations? (Choose two) A. address-family B. virtual-instance-name C. subnet-mask D. router-id E. process-id Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25 Which option is the Cisco recommended method to secure access to the console port? A. Set the privilege level to a value less than 15 B. Configure a very short timeout (less than 100 milliseconds) for the port C. Configure the activation-character command D. Configure an ACL Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26 When you implement PIR, which IP SLA probes is used to determine the MOS? A. throughput B. jitter C. latency D. packet loss Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27 Refer To the exhibit.
When pockets are transmitted from r1 to r2, where are they encrypted? A. on the EO/0 interface on R1 B. on the outside interface C. in the forwarding engine D. in the tunnel E. within the crypto map F. on the EO/1 interface on R2 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the output?
A. This router runs NTPv6 B. This router runs OSPFv3 and is not a DR C. A directly connected router on another interface than this one will be able to successfully ping the link local address of Gi2/0 D. This router runs EIGRpv6 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29 which two conditions are required for tracking the interface IP routing state?(choose two) A. The interface line protocol must be up B. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disable on the interface C. A VRF must be enabled on the interface D. A known IP address must be configured on the interface E. IP routing must be disabled on the interface Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 30 How long will the root bridge continue to send configuration BPDUs to notify all bridges to age out their MAC address tables? A. The max-age time B. The forward delay + max-age time C. The forward delay time D. Three times the hello interval Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31 Which three options are the main security features in SNMPv3? (Choose three) A. authentication B. MIB persistence C. message integrity D. authorization E. encryption F. accounting Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 32 Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true A. The FIB tables resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled. B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table. C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled. D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33 Company A have two remote sites, which are connected to a common ISP by BGP. At each site, company A is using the same autonomous system number. Which BGP feature can you implement to enable routing between the two site? A. allowas-in B. AS path prepending C. communities D. peer groups Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34 Which three criteria are used for stackwise election of a master switch? A. lowest MAC address B. Vl.AN revision number C. longest uptime D. user-selected priority E. highest MAC address F. IOS version number Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 35 External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs. You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to enable the routers to exchange routes? A. Clear the EIGRP process B. Change the router ID on R2. C. Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship. D. Change the corresponding loopback address. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 Refer to the exhibit.Which two statements about the given NetFlow configuration are true?(Choose two) A. It supports both IPv4 and IPv6 flows. B. It uses the default port to send flows to the exporter. C. It supports only IPv6 flows. D. It supports only IPv4 flows. E. It supports a maximum of 2048 entres. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 37 Which command can you enter to allow a multicast-enabled router to advertise itself to the BSR router as PIMv2 c-RP? A. ip pim autorp listener B. ip pim send-rp-announce C. ip pim rp-candidate D. ip pim rp-address E. ip pim send-rp- discovery Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38How can you configure this network so that customers can transparently extend their networks through the provider? A. Configure eBGP peering among the CE routers B. Configure OSPF peering between the CE and PE routers. C. Configure eBGP peering between the CE and PE routers D. Configure EIGRP OTP on the CE routers. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39 Refer to the exhibit.Which BGP feature is being used? A. graceful shutdown B. graceful restart C. PIC D. fast session deactivation Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40 Refer to the exhibit.When it attempted to register the EEM script, the device returned this error message. Which action can you take to correct the problem? A. Configure the end command at the end of the BACKUP EEM policy B. Configure the event none command so that the event can be triggered manually C. Configure the event action to run the applet D. Configure the event manager run command to register the event Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit.Cisco unity connection site A has two locations and Cisco Unity connection Site B has one Location. Which protocol connect the location and servers together for messaging and replication? A. 1 SMTP 2 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 3 None B. 1 HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 2 SMTP 3 None C. 1 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 2 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP 3 – HTTP/HTTPS, SMTP D. 1 SMTP 1 SMTP 1 SMTP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit.
A customer has two Cisco Unified Communication manager 9.X clusters that serve the same location. An engineer has attempted to set up Enhanced Location call admission control so that any call within a site between phones on the two clusters do not decrement the available bandwidth to and from that site. However, the real time monitoring tool currently shows bandwidth being used from the site to Hub_none. When a call is placed between phones at the site, which action must be taken to correct this situation? A. The link between clusters must be a type of inter-cluster trunk instead of a sip trunk. B. The hub_none location must have a link configuration to the phantom location. C. The device pool names must match between clusters. D. The Hub_none location must have a link configured to the shadow location. E. The SIP trunks should be changed to use the shadow location. Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3 Assume a 30-millisecond voice payload, 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end- of-frame flag, and the IP, UDP, and RTP headers are compressed to 2 bytes, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for eight VoIP calls that use a A. 729 codec over a multilink PPP link with cRTP enabled? B. 121.6 kb/s C. 92.8 kb/s D. 88.4 kb/s E. 83.2 kb/s F. 78.4 kb/s Correct Answer: D Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk652/tk698/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094ae2.shtml
QUESTION 4 In Cisco IOS routers that use low latency queuing, which algorithm is used to presort traffic going into the default queue? A. first-in, first-out B. last-in, first-out C. weighted round robin D. fair queuing E. random processing Correct Answer: D WFQ is a flow-based queuing algorithm used in Quality of Service (QoS) that does two things simultaneously: It schedules interactive traffic to the front of the queue to reduce response time, and it fairly shares the remaining bandwidth between high bandwidth flows. A stream of packets within a single session of a single application is known as flow or conversation. WFQ is a flow-based method that sends packets over the network and ensures packet transmission efficiency which is critical to the interactive traffic. This method automatically stabilizes network congestion between individual packet transmission flows.
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit.Which ds0-group option should you select to support automated number identification information collection on inbound calls for this digital T1 voice circuit? A. eandm-wink-start B. eandm-delay-dial C. eandm-delay-dial D. eandm-lmr E. eandm-fgd Correct Answer: E Because it can receive ANI information and sends DNIS info. But can\\’t send ANI. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/isdn/configuration/15-mt/vi-15-mt- book/vi-imp-t1cas-voip.html
QUESTION 6 Which configuration parameter defines whether or not the user portion of a directory URI is case sensitive on Cisco Unified Communications Manager 9.1 or later? A. URI Dialing Display Preference in Cisco CallManager Service Parameter B. URI Lookup Policy in Cisco CallManager Service Parameter C. URI Dialing Display Preference in Enterprise Parameters D. URI Lookup Policy in Enterprise Parameters E. The user portion of a directory URI is always case sensitive and cannot be changed. Correct Answer: D Explanation: Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports the following formats in the user portion of a directory URI (the portion before the @ symbol): Accepted characters are a-z, A-Z, 0-9, !, $, %, and, *, _, +, ~, -, =, \, ?, \, `, ,, ., /. The user portion has a maximum length of 47 characters. The user portion accepts percent encoding from %2[0-9A-F] through %7[0-9A-F]. For some accepted characters, Unified CM automatically applies percent encoding. See below for more information on percent encoding. The user portion is case-sensitive or case-insensitive depending on the value of the URI Lookup Policy enterprise parameter. The default value is case-sensitive. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/bat/9_1_1/CUCM_BK_C271A6 9D_00_cucm-bulk- administration-guide-91/CUCM_BK_C271A69D_00_cucm-bulk- administration-guide-91_chapter_01001110.html
QUESTION 7 Which two call processing features have a lower priority than the Do Not Disturb settings on a Cisco IP phone? (Choose two.) A. park reversion for a locally parked call B. hold reversion C. intercom D. pickup notification E. terminating side of a call back F. originating side of a call back Correct Answer: DE For the DND Ringer Off option, only visual notification gets presented to the device. For the DND Call Reject option, no notification gets presented to the device. For the terminating side of the call, Do Not Disturb overrides call back: When the phone that terminates the call uses DND Ringer Off, the Callback Available screen will be displayed on the phone after the terminating side goes off hook and on hook. When the phone that terminates the call has DND Call Reject enabled but the phone becomes available (goes off hook and on hook), a new screen will be presented to the originating device as ” has become available but is on DND-R”. Callback available notification will be sent only after the terminating side disables DND Call Reject.
QUESTION 8 Your customer reported that the Sync Agent service failed to start after a reinstallation of a Cisco this problem after you review these customer logs? A. Add “appadmin” application user in Cisco UCM and IM and Presence B. Add “appadmin” application user in Ciscon IM and Presence C. Add “appaduser” application user in Cisco UCM D. Add “appadmin” application user in Cisco UCM E. Add “appaduser” application user in Cisco UCM and IM and Presence Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 What is the maximum delay requirement, in milliseconds, for deploying Cisco Unity Connection servers in active/active pairs over different sites? A. 150 B. 200 C. 100 D. 250 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which option describes how you can show the same contacts in your Jabber for Windows on-premise client as you do on the corporate directory of your IP phone? A. Switch your Jabber client to use UDS instead of EDI. B. Switch your Jabber client to use EDI instead of UDS. C. Update your IMandP server to sync off of the same LDAP directory as your Cisco Unified Communications Manager. D. Add Jabber to your inbound/outbound firewall rules on your PC. E. Jabber can only pull directly from LDAP and cannot directly search the Cisco Unified Communications Manager user database. Correct Answer: A LDAP contact resolution — The client cannot use LDAP for contact resolution when outside of the corporate firewall. Instead, the client must use UDS for contact resolution. When users are inside the corporate firewall, the client can use either UDS or LDAP for contact resolution. If you deploy LDAP within the corporate firewall, Cisco recommends that you synchronize your LDAP directory server with Cisco Unified Communications Manager to allow the client to connect with UDS when users are outside the corporate firewall. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/Windows/9_7/JABW_BK_C4 C679C9_00_cisco-jabber-for- windows-97/JABW_BK_C4C679C9_00_cisco-jabber-for- windows-97_chapter_0111.html#CJAB_CN_C2733196_00
QUESTION 11 Where can a Cisco Unified CM administrator define Call Detail Records data collection interval (Choose two.) A. Cisco Unified Reporting B. Cisco Unified CM Administration Enterprise Parameters C. Cisco Unified Serviceability D. Cisco Unified CM Administration Service Parameters E. Call Detail Records data collection interval is not a configurable parameter. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 A collaboration engineer configures Cisco Unified CM location using G.711 and iLBC for each site. The bandwidth for each link is shown. Which two options represent the maximum concurrent number of calls supported by grand junction to Casper for each Codec? (Choose two.) A. 20 G.711 calls B. 18 G.711 calls C. 36 iLBC calls D. 42 iLBC calls E. 11 G.711 calls F. 51 iLBC calls Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 13 Which procedure uses H.225 messages to exchange H.245 Master-Salve Determination information? A. H.323 early media B. H.245 terminal capability set C. H 225 tunneling D. H.245 tunneling E. H.323 Fast Connect Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14 Which statement about high availability for XMPP federation in Cisco IM and Presence is true? A. A maximum of two Cisco IM and Presence nodes can be enabled for XMPP federation. B. Cisco IM and Presence load balances outbound requests across all nodes that are enabled for XMPP federation. C. Cisco IM and Presence load balances outbound requests across both nodes that are enabled for XMPP federation in a subcluster. D. The XMPP federation-enabled nodes should have different priorities and weights on the published DNS SRV for proper inbound request node selection. E. A single DNS SRV record that resolves to an XMPP federation-enabled node must be published on a public DNS server for inbound request routing. Correct Answer: B High availability for XMPP federation differs from the high availability model for other IM and Presence Service features because it is not tied to the two node sub-cluster model. To provide high availability for XMPP federation, you must enable two or more IM and Presence Service nodes in your cluster for XMPP federation; having multiple nodes enabled for XMPP federation not only adds scale but it also provides redundancy in the event that any node fails.
QUESTION 15
An IT engineer upgraded Cisco Unified Communications Manager to version 9.1.2. When accessing CLI of the server, this output is displayed. Which three actions must be taken to correct this issue? (Choose Three) A. From the recovery disk menu options, select option [F] to check and correct disk file system B. Login to DRS and perform Cisco Unified CM restore from the backup C. From the recovery disk menu option, select option [Q] to quit recovery program and reboot the virtual machine D. Download Cisco unified CM recovery iso, boot the virtual machine from it and verify disk partitioning layout E. Create a new virtual machine from Cisco ova template and create a fresh install with the Cisco Unified CM bootable iso F. Take the backup of the system with disaster recovery system G. From the recovery disk menu options, select option [A] to align the partitions of the virtual machines Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 16 A user has reported that when trying to access Visual Voicemail the following error is received “Unable to open application. Please try again later. If it continues to fail contact your administrator”. The collaboration engineer is working on the problem found on the following phone logs: CVMInstallerModule STATUS_install_cancelled STATUS_INSTALL)_ERROR [thread=installer MQThread][class=cip midp midletsuite installerModule][function=update status] Midlet install Canceled/ERROR…visual Voicemail How can this issue be resolved? A. Replace the sever name with the server IP on service URL field B. Eliminate the space in the service Name field C. Configure DNS on phone configuration so it can resolve server name D. Check the Enable checkbox on IP phone service configuration Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17 Which Cisco IM and Presence service is responsible for logging all IM traffic that passes through the IM and Presence server to an external database for IM compliance? A. Cisco Presence Engine B. Cisco Serviceability Reporter C. Cisco Sync Agent D. Cisco XCP Connection Manager E. Cisco XCP Message Archiver Correct Answer: E The Cisco Unified Presence XCP Message Archiver service supports the IM Compliance feature. The IM Compliance feature logs all messages sent to and from the Cisco Unified Presence server, including point-to-point messages, and messages from adhoc (temporary) and permanent chat rooms for the Chat feature. Messages are logged to an external Cisco-supported database.
QUESTION 18 Exhibit:Which two phone security functions are available to this Cisco IP phone? (Choose two.) A. Default Authentication of TFTP downloaded files using a signing key B. Encryption of TFTP configuration files using a signing key C. Encrypted call signalling but unencrypted call media D. Encrypted call media but unencrypted call signalling E. Encrypted call signalling and media F. Local trust verification on the Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 19 A CUCM engineer has deployed Type B SIP Phones on a remote site and no SIP dial rules were deployed for these phones. How Will CUCM receive the DTMF after the phone goes off- hook and the button are pressed? A. Each digit will be received by CUCM in a SIP NOTIFY message as soon as they are pressed B. The first digit will be received in a sip invite and subsequent digits will be received using NOTIFY message as soon as they are pressed. C. Each digit bill be received by CUCM in a SIP INVITE as soon as the dial soft key has been pressed. D. All digits will be received by CUCM in a SIP INVITE as soon as the dial soft key has been pressed Correct Answer: A Type-B IP telephones offer functionality based on the Key Press Markup Language (KPML) to report user key presses. Each one of the user input events will generate its own KPML-based message to Unified CM. From the standpoint of relaying each user action immediately to Unified CM, this mode of operation is very similar to that of phones running SCCP.Every user key press triggers a SIP NOTIFY message to Unified CM to report a KPML event corresponding to the key pressed by the user. This messaging enables Unified CM\\’s digit analysis to recognize partial patterns as they are composed by the user and to provide the appropriate feedback, such as immediate reorder tone if an invalid number is being dialed. In contrast to Type-A IP phones running SIP without dial rules, Type-B SIP phones have no Dial key to indicate the end of user input. A user dialing 1000 would be provided call progress indication (either ringback tone or reorder tone) after dialing the last 0 and without having to press the Dial key. This behavior is consistent with the user interface on phones running the SCCP protocol. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/5x/50dialpl.html#wp1090653 https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/87236/working-concept-sccp-sip-phones-and-dial-rules
QUESTION 20 Which Cisco Unified CM Application user is created by default and used by Cisco Unified CM Extension Mobility? A. CCMAdministrator B. EMSysUser C. TabSyncSysUser D. CCMSysUser E. CTIGWUser Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21 Which design restriction applies to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition clustering over the WAN deployment with extended round-trip times in Cisco Unified CM 9.1 and later releases? A. SIP and H.323 intercluster trunks are supported. B. Only SIP trunk is supported. C. SIP trunks and H.323 gateways are supported. D. A minimum of 1.544 Mb/s bandwidth is required for all traffic between any two nodes in the cluster. E. Only RSVP agents can be configured and registered to the SME cluster as media resources. Correct Answer: B Using only SIP trunks in the SME cluster allows you to deploy a “media transparent” cluster where media resources, when required, are inserted by the end or leaf Unified Communications system and never by SME. Using only SIP trunks also allows you to use extended round trip times (RTTs) between SME nodes when clustering over the WAN.
QUESTION 22 A Jabber for window user is on a call with cisco telepresence EX90 endpoint at the same location. During the call, the video on the jabber for Windows application was high quality but the video on the EX90 was choppy and slow. When the administrator checked the service rate on the EX90 it showed 2048 Kbps. Which two configuration changes can fix this problem? A. Lower the bit rate in the region configuration in communication manager between the endpoints B. Increase the location bandwidth for immersive video between the endpoints C. Enable BFCP in the SIP profile for the jabber client D. Enable H.263 on the EX90 E. Replace the camera for the jabber user with the precision HD USB camera F. Increase the bandwidth between the jabber video client and the EX90 Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 23 Refer to the exhibit.What does an outside caller hear when calling a user and forwarding to Cisco Unity Connection? A. The caller hears the Emergency greeting, followed by the voicemail greeting of the user they originally called. B. The caller hears the message “Emergency Message is not available,” followed by the voicemail greeting of the user they originally called. C. The caller hears the emergency greeting followed by the Opening Greeting message. D. The caller hears the Main Message greeting and then the call is disconnected. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24 Which codec complexity mode, when deployed on Cisco IOS routers with DSPs using the C5510 chipset, supports the most G.711 calls per DSP? A. Low B. Medium C. High D. Secure E. Flex Correct Answer: E The flex parameter allows the complexity to automatically adjust to either medium or high complexity depending on the needs of a call. For example, if a call uses the G.711 codec, the C5510 chipset automatically adjusts to the medium- complexity mode. However, if the call uses G.729, the C5510 chipset uses the high complexity mode
QUESTION 25 An engineer configuration EmCC needs to understand the priority order in which the home Cluster concatenates calling search space (CSS) when users login to the visiting Phones. Drag the CSS on the left to the correct priority order on the right. Not all options will be used. Priority 1 is the highest and priority 3 is the lowest. Select and Place:Correct Answer:
QUESTION 26 Which two rules apply to MMOH in SRST? (Choose two.) A. A maximum of three MOH groups are allowed. B. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their IP address to receive different MOH media streams. C. A maximum of five media streams are allowed. D. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their MAC address to receive different MOH media streams. E. Cisco Unified SRST voice gateway allows you to associate phones with different MOH groups on the basis of their extension numbers to receive different MOH media streams. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 27 Refer to the exhibit.
How many SIP signaling transaction(s) took place in this SIP message exchange between two SIP user agents? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 F. 6 Correct Answer: C During the establishment, maintenance and termination of a SIP session, signaling messages are exchanged between the two SIP endpoints. There are two different kinds of signaling “conversations” that those messages take part in: transactions and dialogs. A transaction is a SIP message exchange between two user-agents that starts with a request and ends with its final response (it can also contain zero or more provisional responses in between). For example, during the termination of a SIP session, one user releases the call by sending a BYE request and the other party replies back with a 200 OK response. This message exchange is called a transaction. But what happens in the case of the INVITE request? The establishment of a SIP session starts basically with an INVITE request and is considered as completed upon the receipt of the ACK. In this case, the transaction starts with the INVITE request and ends with the 200 OK, so the ACK is not part of the transaction. The ACK can be considered as a transaction on its own. However, when the final response to an INVITE is not a 2xx response, then the ACK is considered as part of the transaction. A dialog is a complete exchange of SIP messages between two user-agents. That means that transactions are actually parts of a dialog. For example, in the case of a SIP session establishment, a dialog starts with the INVITE-200 OK transaction, continues with the ACK and ends with the BYE-200 OK transaction. The picture below depicts the dialog and transactions that take place during the establishment of a SIP session:Note: There can also be subsequent requests that belong to the same dialog, such as a BYE or a re-INVITE message. As out-of-dialog requests are considered messages such as an initial INVITE request for a new session or an OPTIONS message for checking capabilities. There are different SIP headers/parameters that identify the dialogs and transactions, and they will be analyzed in later posts. Reference: https://telconotes.wordpress.com/2013/03/13/sip-transactions-vs-dialogs/
QUESTION 28 In which call state does the Mobility soft key act as a toggle key to enable or disable Single Number Reach for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express SCCP IP phones? A. idle B. seized C. alerting D. ringing E. connected Correct Answer: A Pressing the Mobility soft key during the idle call state enables the SNR feature. This key is a toggle; pressing it a second time disables SNR. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cm eadm/cmesnr.html
QUESTION 29 A Collaboration engineer implemented Cisco EMCC between Cisco Unified CM clusters. The administrator has configured the bulk certificate management and exported the certificates to the SFTP server. After importing the certificates into each of the clusters, the administrator tested Cisco EMCC on a phone, but received “Login is unavailable (208)”. Which two steps resolve this error? (Choose two) A. Update the cluster IDs so that they are unique in the EMCC network. B. Enable the Allow Proxy service parameter on both clusters. C. Restart the Cisco CallManager and Cisco Tomcat Servers. D. Associate a user device profile for the user in the remote cluster. E. Consolidate the exported certificates and reimport into each cluster. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 30 Which two components are required when configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager for time-of-day routing? (Choose three.) A. Partition B. Time Period C. Time Schedule D. Time Zone E. Date Time Group Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 31 Which statement about G.722.1 codec support on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is true? A. It is always preferred by Cisco Unified Communications Manager over G.711. B. It is a high-complexity wideband codec. C. It operates at bit rates of 15.2 and 13.3 kb/s. D. It is supported for SIP and SCCP devices. E. It is supported for SIP and H.323 devices. Correct Answer: E G.722.1 is a low-complexity wideband codec operating at 24 and 32 kb/s. The audio quality approaches that of G.722 while using at most half the bit rate. As it is optimized for both speech and music, G.722.1 has slightly lower speech quality than the speech-optimized iSAC codec. G.722.1 is supported for SIP and H.323 devices.
QUESTION 32 Which statement about a virtual SNR DN-configured Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express-enabled Cisco IOS router is true? A. Virtual SNR DN supports either SCCP or SIP IP phone DNs. B. A virtual SNR DN is a DN that is associated with multiple registered IP phones. C. Calls in progress can be pulled back from the phone that is associated with the virtual SNR DN. D. The SNR feature can only be invoked if the virtual SNR DN is associated with at least one registered IP phone. E. A call that arrived before a virtual SNR DN is associated with a registered phone, and still exists after association is made, but cannot be answered from the phone. Correct Answer: E SCCP: Configuring a Virtual SNR DN To configure a virtual SNR DN on Cisco Unified SCCP IP phones, perform the following steps. Prerequisites Cisco Unified CME 9.0 or a later version. Restrictions Virtual SNR DN only supports Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone DNs. Virtual SNR DN provides no mid-call support. Mid-calls are either of the following: Calls that arrive before the DN is associated with a registered phone and is still present after the DN is associated with the phone. Calls that arrive for a registered DN that changes state from registered to virtual and back to registered. Mid-calls cannot be pulled back, answered, or terminated from the phone associated with the DN. State of the virtual DN transitions from ringing to hold or remains on hold as a registered DN. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/admin/configuration/guide/cmeadm/cmesnr.html#38281
QUESTION 33 Where can a Cisco Unified CM administrator define Billing Application Server(s) for Call Detail Records? A. Cisco Unified Serviceability B. Service Parameters in Cisco Unified CM Administration. C. Enterprise Parameters in Cisco Unified CM Administration. D. Cisco Unified Reporting. E. Call Detail Records data collection internal is not a configurable parameter. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34 Which protocol is used by presence-enabled users in Cisco IM and Presence to control phones that are registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. AXL/SOAP B. CTI/QBE C. SIP/SIMPLE D. LDAP E. XMPP Correct Answer: B The CTI gateway provides desk phone control when users are configured for phone association mode. Proper installation calls upon information to specify CTI gateway server names, addresses, ports, and protocols on CUPS. Configured correctly, the CTI gateway enables users logging in to CUPC to reach the CTI gateway.
QUESTION 35 Which service, available only on the publisher server in a Cisco Unified CM cluster, is needed to enable a mixed mode cluster? A. Cisco Trust Verification B. Cisco Transport Layer Security C. Cisco CTL Provider D. Cisco Certificate Expiry Monitor E. Cisco Certificate Authority Proxy Function Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36 A Cisco Unified Contact Center Express manager wants to add database integration to the selfservice interactive voice response application. Which four types of licensing and database servers support this requirement? (Choose four.) A. The server must have enhanced licensing. B. The server must have premium licensing. C. A server running Sybase Adaptive Server is required. D. A server running Oracle is required. E. A server running Postgress SQL is required. F. A server running SAP SQL server is required. G. A server running Microsoft SQL server is required. H. The server must have standard licensing. Correct Answer: BCDG
QUESTION 37 Which two descriptions of +E.164 and enterprise alternate number for directory numbers in Cisco Unified communications Manager 10.6 are true(choose two) A. They cannot be advertised as PSTN fail over number B. They can be added into local partition C. If the number mask is not configured, the alternate number is invalid D. They cannot be added into local partition E. They are not eligible to be advertised using Global Dial Plan Replication F. If the number mask it is not configured, use DN as alternate number Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 38 A Cisco Unity Connection administrator receives a name change request from a voice-mail user, whose Cisco Unity Connection user account was imported from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What should the administrator do to execute this change? A. Change the user data in the Cisco Unity Connection administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco Unity Connection administration to push the change to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. B. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco Unity Connection administration to pull the changes from Cisco Unified CM. C. Change the user data in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administration page, then use the Synch User page in Cisco Unified CM administration to push the change to Cisco Unity Connection. D. Change the user profile from Imported to Local on Cisco Unity Connection Administration, then edit the data locally on Cisco Unity Connection. E. Change the user data in Cisco Unity Connection and Cisco Unified Communications Manager separately Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39 Which route pattern is matched in Cisco Unified Communication Manager Version 11.0 when a user dials 2001? A. 200X configured with urgent priority B. 20[02-4]1 configured with urgent priority C. 200! Configured with urgent priority D. 20[*2-4]1 configured with urgent priorit E. 20[1-4]1 configured with nonurgent priority Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40 Which method allows administrators to determine the best match impedance on analog voice ports in Cisco IOS router without having to shut and no shut the ports? A. THL tone sweep B. original tone sweep C. ECAN test D. inject-tone local sweep E. remote loop Correct Answer: A THL tone sweep allows all available impedances for a single test call to a quiet termination point out to the PSTN. You do not need to manually disable ECAN on the voice port under test. The test feature switches impedances automatically for the tester. The test feature calculates the arithmetic mean ERL and reports the mean for each channel profile at each impedance setting. Then, at the end of the test, the feature specifies the best match impedance setting. This test requires minimal supervision. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip- voip/64282-impedance- choice.html
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The changes come into effect on February 24th 2020
All certification tracks and levels are affected
The main certification levels remain the same – CCNA, CCNP and CCIE
The different tracks are being removed at the CCNA level
The tracks are being consolidated at the CCNP and CCIE level
The entry-level CCENT certification is being retired
The recertification period for all certifications will be 3 years
CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate
Current CCNA Tracks before February 24th:
CCNA Routing and Switching
CCNA Cloud
CCNA Collaboration
CCNA Cyber Ops
CCNA Data Center
CCNA Industrial
CCNA Security
CCNA Service Provider
CCNA Wireless
CCDA Design
New CCNA Tracks from February 24th:
CCNA
Cisco Certified DevNet Associate (new)
The 10 current CCNA tracks will no longer be available from 24th February 2020. Way back in the day when Cisco was originally a routing and switching company, they released the CCNA certification which was the equivalent of today’s CCNA Routing and Switching. Whenever somebody mentions the ‘CCNA’ in general, they’re talking about the CCNA R&S.
Cisco went on to expand into other technology areas such as Security with devices like the PIX firewall (now the ASA) and Collaboration with products such as Cisco CallManager (now the Cisco Unified Communications Manager). The certification evolved to include the new technologies, with CCNA Security, CCNA Collaboration, etc. tracks being added, eventually culminating in the 10 tracks available now.
Having 10 different CCNA tracks can be confusing both for new network engineers wishing to get certified and also for employers. Another concern is that engineers working on real-world Cisco networks are typically expected to have skills across multiple tracks, and the current certification program means they have to either study all the different tracks which would be very time consuming and expensive, or pick up knowledge on the job without a structured study showing the right way to do things.
Cisco is addressing this by consolidating the 10 current tracks into a single CCNA certification which covers foundational level knowledge across all of them. Network automation and programmability are also included.
Cisco offers official 5-day classroom courses for each of the current tracks. The course material for the new CCNA exam hasn’t been released yet, but I expect it will also be a 5-day class (or maybe 10 days). Obviously, you can’t fit 10 weeks of training into 1 or 2 weeks, so the more advanced material will be pushed up to the CCNP level exams.
Required Exams for CCNA
To achieve the CCNA Routing and Switching beforeFebruary 24th, you can EITHER:
Take BOTH the ICND1 100-105 (which gets you the CCENT) AND ICND2 200-105 exams
Everything is normal until February 23, 2020! However, if you get certified after February 24, you will receive a new certification and related certificate! Below you will learn about the main updates for cisco CCNA, CCNP, CCIE certification!
The last day to take any of the current exams is February 23rd, 2020, and the first day to take new exams is February 24th, 2020. When Cisco certifications have been updated in the past, there’s usually a transitional period of around 3 months where both the old and new exams are available. Because this is such a major update Cisco is doing a clean cutover on a specific date.
If you achieve certification before February 24th, you will automatically receive the equivalent new certification after the cutover date. You will need to recertify 3 years after the date you attained the certification. For example, if you achieve the CCNA with the current exam on January 1st, 2020, you will still be a CCNA after the cutover date, and you will need to recertify (with the latest version of the exam) on January 1st, 2023.
Cisco Certified DevNet Associate
Network programmability and automation is a comparatively new technology that is becoming more prevalent, particularly in Service Provider and large enterprise environments. Cisco is releasing the new Cisco Certified DevNet Associate certification to give engineers the knowledge and skills to program network environments. It’s aimed at developers who want to learn how to use their skills in networks, or network engineers who are cross-training into programming.
What Should You Do If You Have Already Begun Studying For the CCNA?
My online CCNA course includes a suggested timetable to complete your studies in 6 weeks. If you’re reading this before December 2019, I highly recommend that you take the current exam (or the ICND1 and ICND2 exams) to get your CCNA before the changeover. There are 12 weeks from December 1st until the changeover so you have plenty of time.
The benefits you get from doing this are:
You retain the qualification after the changeover without having to study all the new topics in the new exam.
You will have advanced Routing and Switching skills you can use on the job and while studying to attain the CCNP Enterprise.
You will be immediately qualified for that new job or promotion you want.
You can move on to the next certification and keep moving up the career ladder NOW.
Waiting for the new exam is a cop-out and just procrastinating. Don’t waste time with your career, get ahead now. You can take it easy once you’ve got the qualifications done and have your dream job.
CCENT Cisco Certified Entry Networking Technician
The CCENT certification is being retired from February 24th, 2020. The qualification is not well known to employers, and job adverts for network positions typically require at least the CCNA.
If you have already passed the CCENT with the ICND1 100-105 exam, I highly recommend you upgrade to the CCNA by taking the ICND2 200-105 exam before the changeover. If you don’t do so you will need to take the new 200-301 exam to get your CCNA.
CCNP Cisco Certified Network Professional
Current CCNP Tracks before February 24th:
CCNP Routing and Switching
CCNP Cloud
CCNP Collaboration
CCNP Data Center
CCNP Security
CCNP Service Provider
CCNP Wireless
CCDP Design
(No Cyber Ops or Industrial tracks unlike the CCNA)
New CCNP Tracks from February 24th:
CCNP Enterprise (covers Wired and Wireless)
CCNP Data Center
CCNP Security
CCNP Service Provider
CCNP Collaboration
Cisco Certified DevNet Professional (new)
CCNP Change
Original CCNP RS and CCNP Wireless direction combined into CCNP Enterprise direction
CCNP examination form changes, originally need 3-5 written tests all passed, the next generation OF CCNP certification only need to pass 2 exams can be obtained, that is, must take a core examination, plus an optional exam
Next-generation CCNP can be certified directly without CCNA certification
Required Exams for CCNP:
Before February 24th, you need to pass 3 or 4 (depending on the track) exams to attain each CCNP.
From February 24th, you need to pass 2 exams for each track:
A technology core exam – covers foundational and common concepts
A concentration exam – a deeper dive into the technology
Under the current rules, you usually have to have at least the CCENT to get a CCNP certification. After the changeover, there are no prerequisite exams.
CCNP Transition:
If you pass any CCNP level exams before February 24, you’ll receive badging for corresponding new exams and credit toward the new CCNP certification.
As with the CCNA, if you achieve certification before February 24th, you will automatically receive the equivalent new certification after the cutover date. You will need to recertify 3 years after the date you attained the certification.
CCIE Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert
Current CCIE Tracks before February 24th:
CCNP Routing and Switching
CCNP Collaboration
CCNP Data Center
CCNP Security
CCNP Service Provider
CCNP Wireless
CCDP Design
(No Cloud track unlike the CCNP)
New CCIE Tracks from February 24th:
CCNP Enterprise Infrastructure (focuses on wired networks)
CCNP Enterprise Wireless
CCIE Data Center
CCIE Security
CCIE Service Provider
CCIE Collaboration
Cisco Certified DevNet Expert is planned but the date it will be available has not been released yet.
Required Exams for CCIE:
Before February 24th, you need to do a written and a lab exam for each track.
From February 24th, you need to pass 2 exams for each track:
A technology core exam – same as for CCNP
A lab exam with 2 modules:
Design (3 hours)
Deploy, Operate and Optimize (5 hours)
Automation and Network Programmability is being added in the new exams.
As before there are no prerequisite exams you need to take before the CCIE. After the changeover, you need to recertify every 3 years, unlike the current rule which is every 2 years.
CCIE Change
RS exit stake in history stage, RS direction changed to Enterprise direction, existing RS certification automatically upgraded to enterprise infrastructure certification after the release of new certification
Design direction changed to DevNet direction, CCDA to DevNet Associate, CCDP to DevNet Professional
Enterprise Infrastructure (Originally R&S) and Enterprise Wireless (Originally Wireless) take the same IE written test
NP written test and IE written test is the same, take the NP/IE written test can choose to directly take THE LAB to become CCIE or reference an optional examination to become CCNP, the exam is more flexible
LAB exam modules changed from tS-DIAG-Configuration to design-and-deploy, operate and optimize two modules
The form of recertification has been changed to 120 credits to be activated, similar to NP certification, requiring only one core exam and one optional exam.
The next generation CCIE is still valid for 3 years, but more than 3 years only need to choose to re-test the written test to activate, no need to test LAB activation
Ten-year honor CCIE changed to 20-year honor CCIE That’s what’s in today’s Cisco workshop, six years of precipitation for the next generation of networking system changes
Summarize
Cisco’s transformation foreshadows a more systematic and diverse certification of the next generation of network engineers, advocating a single-specific (core exam) and multiple (optional exams) that will flexibly choose the direction and content of learning based on their own interests or business needs.
At the same time, there is automation and development in each direction, so that the original relatively simple implementation of delivery engineers have the opportunity to move to a higher level of design and research and development! New changes have brought new challenges, new opportunities, the positive embrace of the new era, but also the best era of our generation of network engineers.
Lead4pass has changed with the times, and now we’re the best! The new era will be even better! Helping everyone is the happiest thing about Lead4pass.
[Free Update] Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 practice test 2022
Vendor: Cisco Exam Code: 200-301 Exam Name: Cisco Certified Network Associate Certification: CCNA Total Questions: 771 Q&A Updated on: 2022
Cisco CCNA 200-301 free exam questions and answers are updated in 2022
QUESTION 1
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
A. active B. on C. auto D. desirable
Correct Answer: B
The Static Persistence (or “on” mode) bundles the links unconditionally and no negotiation protocol is used. In this mode, neither PAgP nor LACP packets are sent or received.
QUESTION 2
What is the function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?
A. offer compression B. increase security by using a WEP connection C. provide authentication D. protect traffic on open networks
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which two commands can you use to configure an actively negotiate EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
A. channel-group 10 modes on B. channel-group 10 mode auto C. channel-group 10 modes passive D. channel-group 10 mode desirable E. channel-group 10 mode active
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 4
DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the IPv6 addresses from the left onto the corresponding address types on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5
Which level of severity must be set to get informational Syslogs?
A. alert
B. critical C. notice D. debug
Correct Answer: D
Specifying a level causes messages at that level and numerically lower levels to be displayed at the destination. From Table 3: informational level = 6, debugging level = 7, notice/notifications level = 5 Severity Level 7 – Making informational, notice, Warning, Error, Critical, Alert, Emergency appear in the Syslog
Cisco CCNA 200-301 free exam questions and answers are updated throughout the year from Lead4Pass
QUESTION 1 Which type of attack is mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection? A. DDoS B. malware C. man-in-the-middle D. worm Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors; one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor, and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table? A. 20 B. 90 C. 110 D. 115 Correct Answer: B The Administrative Distance (AD) of EIGRP is 90 while the AD of OSPF is 110 so the EIGRP route will be chosen to install into the routing table.
QUESTION 3 Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.) A. A new switch has no VLANs configured. B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device. C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains. D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space. E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN. F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches. Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 4 Which statement about Link Aggregation when implementing on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true? A. The EtherChannel must be configured in “mode active”. B. When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps. C. To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured. D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-2/configguide/b_cg82/b_cg82_chapter_010101011.html
QUESTION 5 Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access? A. HTTPS B. RADIUS C. TACACS+ D. HTTP Correct Answer: A
Organize the list of cisco exam certifications, share cisco exam questions and answers, and recommend the latest updated Lead4Pass exam dumps!
Cisco Exam List
Cisco certifications are divided into Cisco certifications and Specialist certifications. Share the list of Cisco certification exams and corresponding exam questions and answers, and Cisco Braindumps
Cisco certifications
Entry:
CCT Collaboration
100-890 CLTECH – Supporting Cisco Collaboration System Devices (CLTECH) v1.0 ( Exam Questions And Answer )
Certifications are proof of knowledge, aptitude, and a lifelong learning mentality that puts you ahead of the competition. Certified employees are highly sought after by hiring managers and are trusted to connect, secure, and automate Cisco networks across the globe.
Prepare to certify
Step 1: Review Prepare to take your exam by familiarizing yourself with the topics the exam will cover.
Step 2: Study & Train Once you know which topics will be on your exam, choose a studying or training option that works for you.
Step 3: Connect You don’t have to study alone. Join the appropriate Certification Community on the Cisco Learning Store and work alongside others who are studying the same material.
Step 4: Practice Practice through Cisco labs, simulation tools, and sandboxes to reach your certification goals.
Step 5: Assess Take a practice exam to test your readiness and to avoid surprises during the real thing.
Step 6: Schedule test Schedule your exam and take it online from a comfortable location or in person at a convenient Pearson VUE location.
Step 7: Certify Log on to the Certification Tracking System to track your certification status and claim your digital kit. If this was your final exam before certification, congratulations! It’s time to celebrate and tell the world about your accomplishment.
Step 8: Recertify Keep your certification current your skills sharp by participating in our Continuing Education program.
All the Cisco exam questions and answers are sorted out above. You can get Cisco practice test, Cisco Dumps Pdf, Cisco Exam Dumps at https://www.vcecert.com/cisco-dumps/
“Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing” Exam MB-320. Candidates for this exam are functional consultants who analyze business requirements and translates those requirements into fully realized business processes and solutions that implement industry best practices. Candidates serve as a key resource in implementing and configuring applications to meet business requirements.
Candidates for this exam have a fundamental understanding of accounting principles and financial operations of businesses,
customer service, field service, manufacturing, retail, and supply chain management concepts.
Here you can get the latest free MB-320 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!
MB-320 exam
Candidates for this exam typically specialize in one or more feature sets of Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations, including finance, manufacturing, and supply chain management. Candidates must have knowledge of basic accounting principles and practices.
Create and manage production and lean orders (25-30%)
Create, process, and manage production batch orders (40-45%)
Free Microsoft MB-320 Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for their Lean manufacturing environment. There has been an engineering change to a fixed quantity product that is in production. This change will add an additional processing step as the second step. The existing version must be phased out and replaced by the new version. You need to ensure that the engineering change takes affect at the end of the month. Solution: 1.) Add a new version to the existing production flow. Set the expiration date to the end of the month. 2.) Create an activity for the new process step and add it in the proper sequence 3.) Create a Kanban rule that incorporates the new activity. Set the expiration date to the end of the month. 4.) Edit the existing Kanban rule. Set the expiration date to the end of the month. Specify the new Kanban rules as the replacement rule Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A company produces various products using Process manufacturing. The manufacturer makes two co-products from a formula and rarely produces the primary formula item. The costs of making the co-products are inflated. The manufacturer must update the costs of producing the co-products and change the formula to not produce the primary formula item. You need to change the primary formula item type. What should you do? A. Associate the costs to produce by-products with the items B. Change the primary formula item to use the planning item type C. Change the cost of the primary formula item to zero and then recalculate the item cost D. Change the production type to Bill of materials and recalculate the item cost Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 A manufacturer uses discreet orders and manually consumes raw material after reporting products as finished. You are performing an end-of-month closing for remaining picking lists on production orders. You must not be required to consume the full amount of material on production order picking lists as a result of improved production efficiency. When the production manager verifies that no material is left to consume, there are remaining back-ordered amounts. You need to pick the line item short and eliminate the remaining demand. What should you do? A. Delete the item from the Bill of materials for the finished good. B. Enter the consumption amount on the line to match the actual amount used, and delete the remaining amount. C. Enter the consumption amount on the line to match the actual amount used and select end on the production order picking list. D. Change the Coverage group on item option to manual. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A pharmaceutical manufacturer uses Process manufacturing. You are consolidating planned batch orders for a specific medication. The order must cover two weeks of demand. No other items need to be consolidated. You need to change the coverage group of the items. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5 You are the production scheduler at a manufacturing company. The company is not using advanced warehousing. You have firmed a planned production order from master planning. The order is ready to be processed. You now need to process the order in production control. What should you do first? A. Report the order as finished B. Estimate the order C. Schedule the order D. Start the order Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 A skateboard manufacturer uses route operations to schedule resources and estimate units per hour. All products use the sample sub assembly item and resource sanding process. You observe an increase in the number of units a sanding belt resource can produce. The production schedule is now inaccurate due to the number of units the sanding belt line can produce. You must make a permanent change to the number of units the resource can produce for all future orders. You need to adjust the process quantity on the route operation. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions form the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 A company manufactures high-end speakers. Customers may choose different color finishes and front grills. You build a product configuration model to represent this speaker. You add the following attributes for the finish and grill.
You need to create a constraint that defines the allowable finish and grill combinations. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 A company implements Dynamic 365 for Finance and Operations. You run the latest master plan. You observe invalid results. You need to set up tracing for the master plan. In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9 You are responsible for product and formula maintenance for a paint manufacturer. You create a formula for white paint and add its lines. When the formula size increases or an ingredient changes, the quantity of the pigment ingredient must be adjusted proportionately. You need to set up the formula line for the pigment. Which formula feature should you use? A. Pegged supply B. Step consumption C. Scalable D. Variable Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/production-control/formulas-versions#use-the-scalable-feature
QUESTION 10 You are the production supervisor at a manufacturing company. You are in the process of configuring the production control module and its parameters. A company plans to use manufacturing execution. Bill of materials (BOM) item consumption must be generated when items are reported at the operation level. You need to configure the Manufacturing execution production order defaults form to allow for back flushing on operations. How should you set up Automatic BOM consumption? To answer, drag the appropriate setting to the correct targets. Each source may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 11 You work for a gem wholesaler that sells raw diamonds. Diamonds are purchased and sold in individual boxes but weighed and inventoried in carats. You are setting up a catch weight item for diamonds. Each box of diamonds must be tracked by its individual container weight. You need to set up this item as a full visibility catch weight item. Which two steps must you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Assign it a Serial number group with per qty. defined as 1. B. Assign the item a Tracking dimension group with active serial number control. C. Create an inter-class unit of measure conversion between boxes and carats. D. Assign a Tracking dimension group with batch number as the only active tracking dimension. Correct Answer: BC References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamicsax-2012/appuser-itpro/create-a-catch-weight-item-with-full-visibility
QUESTION 12 A company manufactures automobile engines. You must create product configurations for values that are used in different types of engines. Each value is based on a master valve design. Different gaskets and fittings are used to allow valves to work with different engines. You need to translate production plans into Dynamics 365 Finance and Operations elements. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 13 A company is looking to use Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. The company is in the process of redesigning and retooling an existing manufacturing plant to support a large long- running contract. They want to be able to forecast capacity to easily ramp up for additional products. You need to set up the environment. Which type of manufacturing should you implement? A. Lean B. Discrete C. Job shop D. Process Correct Answer: C
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The Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies v1.0 (SPCOR 350-501) exam is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNP Service Provider, CCIE Service Provider, and Cisco Certified Specialist – Service Provider Core certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing core service provider network technologies including core architecture, services, networking, automation, quality of services, security, and network assurance. The course, Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies, helps candidates prepare for this exam.
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QUESTION 2 How can a network administrator secure rest APIs? A. They can have a general administrator login for multiple users to access that has command entries logged. B. They can authenticate user sessions and provide the appropriate privilege level. C. They can ensure that user sessions are authenticated using TACACS+ only. D. They can allow read and write privileges to all users. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the IS-IS topology are true? (Choose two.) A. R1 and R4 are Level 2 neighbors. B. All four routers are operating as Level 1-2 routers. C. All four routers are operating as Level 2 routers only. D. All four routers are operating as Level 1 routers only. E. R1 and R2 are Level 2 neighbors. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. You are configuring an administrative domain in the given multi-vendor environment with PIM-SM. Which feature can you implement so that devices can dynamically learn the RP? A. BSR B. BIDIP-PIM C. Auto-RP D. SSM Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 In an MPLS network, which protocol can be used to distribute a Segment Prefix? A. LDP B. EIGRP C. OSPF D. RSVP-TE Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit. What does this value mean when it is received in XML? A. It indicates a value assigned by a network administrator to tag a route. B. It indicates a break in a sequence. C. It means a data field is blank. D. It shows the ending of the script. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit.
Router 2 connects OSPF area 1 and area 0. Router 2 receives LSA type 1 from Router 1 in area 1. How many type 3 LSAs will be generated by Router 2 into area 0 to advertise all prefixes that are announced by the Router 1 LSA type 1 packet? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit.
A company is deploying IPv6 using a dual-stack approach. OSPFv2 is used for IPv4 routing and is redistributed into the BGP IPv4 address family. The network engineer also needs to enable OSPFv3 for IPv6 routing using the same design that is used for OSPFv2. All prefixes in the OSPFv3 database must be redistributed into the BGP IPv6 address family at router R2, but R3 does not receive the loopback 0 IPv6 address of R2 via BGP. Which action will fix this problem? A. redistribution of BGP routes into OSPFv3 B. redistribution of OSPFv3 routes into BGP with include-connected C. mutual redistribution of OSPFv3 and BGP routes D. redistribution of connected OSPFv3 routes Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 How can shared services in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN provide Internet access to the Customers of a central service provider? A. Static routes on CE routers allow route leakage from a PE global routing table. B. The CE router can establish a BGP peering to a PE router and use the PE device to reach the Internet. C. The customer VRF uses route targets to import and export routes to and from a shared services VRF. D. Route distinguishers are used to identify the routes that CEs can use to reach the Internet. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/service-providers-documents/providing-internet-access-for-mpls-l3-vpns/ta-p/3109924
QUESTION 12 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the multicast concepts from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
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The Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies v1.0 (ENCOR 350-401) exam is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNP® Enterprise, CCIE® Enterprise Infrastructure, CCIE Enterprise Wireless, and Cisco Certified Specialist – Enterprise Core certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing core enterprise network technologies including dual-stack (IPv4 and IPv6) architecture, virtualization, infrastructure, network assurance, security, and automation. The course, Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies, helps candidates prepare for this exam.
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QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit.
Which privilege level is assigned to VTY users? A. 1 B. 7 C. 13 D. 15 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 The login method is configured on the VTY lines of a router with these parameters. The first method for authentication is TACACS If TACACS is unavailable, login is allowed without any provided credentials Which configuration accomplishes this task?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which statements are used for error handling in Python? A. try/catch B. try/except C. block/rescue D. catch/release Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Refer to this output. What is the logging severity level? R1#Feb 14 37:15:12:429: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN Line protocol on interface GigabitEthernet0/1. Change state to up A. Notification B. Alert C. Critical D. Emergency Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit. A wireless client is connecting to FlexAP1 which is currently working standalone mode. The AAA authentication process is returning the following AVPs: Tunnel-Private-Group-Id(81): 15 Tunnel-Medium-Type(65): IEEE-802(6) Tunnel-Type(64): VLAN(13) Which three behaviors will the client experience? (Choose three.) A. While the AP is in standalone mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 15. B. While the AP is in standalone mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 10. C. When the AP transitions to connected mode, the client will be de-authenticated. D. While the AP is in standalone mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 13. E. When the AP is in connected mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 13. F. When the AP transitions to connected mode, the client will remain associated. G. When the AP is in connected mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 15. H. When the AP is in connected mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 10. Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit.
During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the network. Which COS to DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly? A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46 B. COS of 7 to DSCP 48 C. COS of 6 to DSCP 46 D. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 A client device fails to see the enterprise SSID, but other devices are connected to it. What is the cause of this issue? A. The hidden SSID was not manually configured on the client. B. The broadcast SSID was not manually configured on the client. C. The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured hidden SSID. D. The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured broadcast SSID. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit. To which setting is the client limitation for WLAN LAP1 configured?
A. 60 B. 1800 C. Client exclusion is not enabled D. 25 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Scenario The East-WLC-2504A controller has a problem. When configuration changes are made to the Employees- East-Wing AP Group that covers the East-Wing, none of the APs receive the updates. Refer to the exhibits to determine where the problems are.
Note, not all menu items, text boxes, or radio buttons are active.
Which four changes must be made in the configuration of the East-WLC-2504A controller to restore functionality to the Employees-East-Wing AP Group? (Choose four.) A. Change the AP in the Employees-East-Wing AP Group. B. Change the IP Address in the east-wing interface. C. Change the VLAN Identifier in the east-wing interface. D. Enable Dynamic AP Management in the east-wing interface. E. Change the Port Number to 2 in the east-wing interface. F. Add the Primary Controller and IP address to the 3700-East-Wing AP. G. Change the SSID in the Employees-East-Wing AP Group. H. Enable the Employees SSID Correct Answer: DFGH References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/69639-wlc-failover.html
QUESTION 10 Which two protocols are used with YANG data models? (Choose two.) A. HTTPS B. SSH C. RESTCONF D. TLS E. NFTCONF Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 11 Which description of an SD-Access wireless network infrastructure deployment is true? A. The access point is part of the fabric underlay. B. The WLC is part of the fabric underaly. C. The access point is part the fabirc overlay. D. The wireless client is part of the fabirc overlay. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which LISP device is responsible for publishing EID-to-RLOC mappings for a site? A. ETR B. MS C. ITR D. MR Correct Answer: A
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The Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies v1.0 (SCOR 350-701) exam is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security, Cisco Certified Specialist – Security Core, and CCIE Security certifications. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing and operating core security technologies including network security, cloud security, content security, endpoint protection and detection, secure network access, visibility, and enforcement. The course, Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies, helps candidates prepare for this exam.
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QUESTION 1 Which connection mechanism does the eSTREAMER service use to communicate? A. IPsec tunnels with 3DES or AES encryption B. TCP over SSL only C. SSH D. EAP-TLS tunnels E. TCP with optional SSL encryption F. IPsec tunnels with 3DES encryption only Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which benefit does endpoint security provide the overall security posture of an organization? A. It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint. B. It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain. C. It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network. D. It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.) A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node. B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server. C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy. D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time. E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona. Correct Answer: BD Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html
QUESTION 5 What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing? A. Deceptive phishing is an attacked aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role. B. A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people. C. Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization. D. Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two.) A. Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values. B. Use prepared statements and parameterized queries. C. Secure the connection between the web and the app tier. D. Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries. E. Block SQL code execution in the web application database login. Correct Answer: AB Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SQL_injection
QUESTION 7 Which exfiltration method does an attacker use to hide and encode data inside DNS requests and queries? A. DNS tunneling B. DNSCrypt C. DNS security D. DNSSEC Correct Answer: A Reference: https://learn-umbrella.cisco.com/cloud-security/dns-tunneling
QUESTION 8 How is Cisco Umbrella configured to log only security events? A. per policy B. in the Reporting settings C. in the Security Settings section D. per network in the Deployments section Correct Answer: A Reference: https://docs.umbrella.com/deployment-umbrella/docs/log-management
QUESTION 9 What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 command? A. authenticates the IKEv2 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX B. authenticates the IP address of the 172.16.0.0/32 peer by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX C. authenticates the IKEv1 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX D. secures all the certificates in the IKE exchange by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/security/a1/sec-a1-cr-book/sec-cr-c4.html#wp6039879000
QUESTION 10 Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure? A. PaaS B. XaaS C. IaaS D. SaaS Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 What is the function of Cisco Cloudlock for data security? A. data loss prevention B. controls malicious cloud apps C. detects anomalies D. user and entity behavior analytics Correct Answer: A Reference: https://umbrella.cisco.com/products/casb
QUESTION 12 How is ICMP used an exfiltration technique? A. by flooding the destination host with unreachable packets B. by sending large numbers of ICMP packets with a targeted hosts source IP address using an IP broadcast address C. by encrypting the payload in an ICMP packet to carry out command and control tasks on a compromised host D. by overwhelming a targeted host with ICMP echo-request packets Correct Answer: C
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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCIE
Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam
Exam Code: 400-151
Total Questions: 491 Q&As
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Best Cisco CCIE 400-151 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)
QUESTION 1
Drag and drop the feature form the left onto the correct benefits on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2
Drag and drop the spanning-tree port from the left onto the correct description on the right
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 3
Drag and drop the objects of the ACI policy model from left onto the correct definition on right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4
Drag and drop the feature from the left onto the left onto the correct description on the right
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5
Drag and drop me concept of Cisco UCS Director orchestrator from the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6
Drag and drop terms at the Cisco Prime Service Catalog from the left onto the definition on the right. 400-151 dumps
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7
Drag and drop the method from the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8
An admin is updating an existing Cisco UCS environment to accommodate a new storage array that will be directly attached to the Cisco UCS.
Unmanaged servers external to the Cisco UCS fabric interconnects will also access the new array existing Cisco UCS service profiles will be used to access the new storage array.
Drag and drop the appropriate steps from left into the correct order on the right to migrate the Cisco UCS to support the new storage array.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9
Drag and drop the correct port security configuration on the left to the correct action on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10
Drag and drop the mode of operation on left onto the correct definition on right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11
Drag and drop feature on the left onto the appropriate business benefits on the right
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12
Drag and drop the actions in the left column into the right column in the order in which you would perform those actions in a step-by-step in-service software upgrade process 400-151 dumps
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 13
Drag and drop two configurations that should fail without data loss from the left column into the 2 Devices Lost column on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 14
Drag and drop the correct description on the left onto the protocols and features on the right. Not all options will be used.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 15
Drag and drop sequence of the steps on left for ISSU software of dual supervisor switches to achieve a non-disruptive upgrade on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
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Refer to the exhibit. The route-map wau2sitc is being used for redistributing BGP routes into the eigrp 28 process.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two) 
Which two statements about the given NetFlow configuration are true?(Choose two) 
How can you configure this network so that customers can transparently extend their networks through the provider? 
Which BGP feature is being used? 
When it attempted to register the EEM script, the device returned this error message. Which action can you take to
Cisco unity connection site A has two locations and Cisco Unity connection Site B has one Location. Which protocol
Which ds0-group option should you select to support automated number identification information collection on inbound
Which two phone security functions are available to this Cisco IP phone? (Choose two.) 
Every user key press triggers a SIP NOTIFY message to Unified CM to report a KPML event corresponding to the key
What does an outside caller hear when calling a user and forwarding to Cisco Unity Connection? 
Correct Answer: 
Note: There can also be subsequent requests that belong to the same dialog, such as a BYE or a re-INVITE message.
