Cisco Latest Network System and practice test – 2021 Update

cisco updated 2021
cisco change 2020

Summary of the Main Changes

  • The changes come into effect on February 24th 2020
  • All certification tracks and levels are affected
  • The main certification levels remain the same – CCNA, CCNP and CCIE
  • The different tracks are being removed at the CCNA level
  • The tracks are being consolidated at the CCNP and CCIE level
  • The entry-level CCENT certification is being retired
  • The recertification period for all certifications will be 3 years

CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate

Current CCNA Tracks before February 24th:

  • CCNA Routing and Switching
  • CCNA Cloud
  • CCNA Collaboration
  • CCNA Cyber Ops
  • CCNA Data Center
  • CCNA Industrial
  • CCNA Security
  • CCNA Service Provider
  • CCNA Wireless
  • CCDA Design

New CCNA Tracks from February 24th:

  • CCNA
  • Cisco Certified DevNet Associate (new)

The 10 current CCNA tracks will no longer be available from 24th February 2020. Way back in the day when Cisco was originally a routing and switching company, they released the CCNA certification which was the equivalent of today’s CCNA Routing and Switching. Whenever somebody mentions the ‘CCNA’ in general, they’re talking about the CCNA R&S.

Cisco went on to expand into other technology areas such as Security with devices like the PIX firewall (now the ASA) and Collaboration with products such as Cisco CallManager (now the Cisco Unified Communications Manager). The certification evolved to include the new technologies, with CCNA Security, CCNA Collaboration, etc. tracks being added, eventually culminating in the 10 tracks available now.

Having 10 different CCNA tracks can be confusing both for new network engineers wishing to get certified and also for employers. Another concern is that engineers working on real-world Cisco networks are typically expected to have skills across multiple tracks, and the current certification program means they have to either study all the different tracks which would be very time consuming and expensive, or pick up knowledge on the job without a structured study showing the right way to do things.

Cisco is addressing this by consolidating the 10 current tracks into a single CCNA certification which covers foundational level knowledge across all of them. Network automation and programmability are also included.

Cisco offers official 5-day classroom courses for each of the current tracks. The course material for the new CCNA exam hasn’t been released yet, but I expect it will also be a 5-day class (or maybe 10 days). Obviously, you can’t fit 10 weeks of training into 1 or 2 weeks, so the more advanced material will be pushed up to the CCNP level exams.

Required Exams for CCNA

To achieve the CCNA Routing and Switching before February 24th, you can EITHER:

Take BOTH the ICND1 100-105 (which gets you the CCENT) AND ICND2 200-105 exams

OR

Take the single CCNA 200-125 exam

To achieve the CCNA after February 24th:

Take the single CCNA 200-301 exam

Everything is normal until February 23, 2020! However, if you get certified after February 24, you will receive a new certification and related certificate! Below you will learn about the main updates for cisco CCNA, CCNP, CCIE certification!

Content from: https://www.flackbox.com/cisco-ccna-ccnp-ccie-certification-update-2020

ccna change

UPDATE: You can find the list of topics on the new CCNA 200-301 exam here:
https://www.cisco.com/content/dam/en_us/training-events/le31/le46/cln/marketing/exam-topics/200-301-CCNA.pdf

Cutover Date

The last day to take any of the current exams is February 23rd, 2020, and the first day to take new exams is February 24th, 2020. When Cisco certifications have been updated in the past, there’s usually a transitional period of around 3 months where both the old and new exams are available. Because this is such a major update Cisco is doing a clean cutover on a specific date.

If you achieve certification before February 24th, you will automatically receive the equivalent new certification after the cutover date. You will need to recertify 3 years after the date you attained the certification. For example, if you achieve the CCNA with the current exam on January 1st, 2020, you will still be a CCNA after the cutover date, and you will need to recertify (with the latest version of the exam) on January 1st, 2023.

Cisco Certified DevNet Associate

Network programmability and automation is a comparatively new technology that is becoming more prevalent, particularly in Service Provider and large enterprise environments. Cisco is releasing the new Cisco Certified DevNet Associate certification to give engineers the knowledge and skills to program network environments. It’s aimed at developers who want to learn how to use their skills in networks, or network engineers who are cross-training into programming.

What Should You Do If You Have Already Begun Studying For the CCNA?

My online CCNA course includes a suggested timetable to complete your studies in 6 weeks. If you’re reading this before December 2019, I highly recommend that you take the current exam (or the ICND1 and ICND2 exams) to get your CCNA before the changeover. There are 12 weeks from December 1st until the changeover so you have plenty of time.

The benefits you get from doing this are:

  • You retain the qualification after the changeover without having to study all the new topics in the new exam.
  • You will have advanced Routing and Switching skills you can use on the job and while studying to attain the CCNP Enterprise.
  • You will be immediately qualified for that new job or promotion you want.
  • You can move on to the next certification and keep moving up the career ladder NOW.

Waiting for the new exam is a cop-out and just procrastinating. Don’t waste time with your career, get ahead now. You can take it easy once you’ve got the qualifications done and have your dream job.

CCENT Cisco Certified Entry Networking Technician

The CCENT certification is being retired from February 24th, 2020. The qualification is not well known to employers, and job adverts for network positions typically require at least the CCNA.

If you have already passed the CCENT with the ICND1 100-105 exam, I highly recommend you upgrade to the CCNA by taking the ICND2 200-105 exam before the changeover. If you don’t do so you will need to take the new 200-301 exam to get your CCNA.

CCNP Cisco Certified Network Professional

Current CCNP Tracks before February 24th:

  • CCNP Routing and Switching
  • CCNP Cloud
  • CCNP Collaboration
  • CCNP Data Center
  • CCNP Security
  • CCNP Service Provider
  • CCNP Wireless
  • CCDP Design

(No Cyber Ops or Industrial tracks unlike the CCNA)

New CCNP Tracks from February 24th:

  • CCNP Enterprise (covers Wired and Wireless)
  • CCNP Data Center
  • CCNP Security
  • CCNP Service Provider
  • CCNP Collaboration
  • Cisco Certified DevNet Professional (new)

CCNP Change

Original CCNP RS and CCNP Wireless direction combined into CCNP Enterprise direction

ccnp change

CCNP examination form changes, originally need 3-5 written tests all passed, the next generation OF CCNP certification only need to pass 2 exams can be obtained, that is, must take a core examination, plus an optional exam

Next-generation CCNP can be certified directly without CCNA certification

cisco ccnp certification 2020

Required Exams for CCNP:

Before February 24th, you need to pass 3 or 4 (depending on the track) exams to attain each CCNP.

From February 24th, you need to pass 2 exams for each track:

  • A technology core exam – covers foundational and common concepts
  • A concentration exam – a deeper dive into the technology

Under the current rules, you usually have to have at least the CCENT to get a CCNP certification. After the changeover, there are no prerequisite exams.

CCNP Transition:

If you pass any CCNP level exams before February 24, you’ll receive badging for corresponding new exams and credit toward the new CCNP certification.

UPDATE: You can check what credit you will receive in the new program for passing CCNP level exams before February 24th with the CCNP Migration Tools here:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/certifications/professional/ccnp-migration-tools.html

As with the CCNA, if you achieve certification before February 24th, you will automatically receive the equivalent new certification after the cutover date. You will need to recertify 3 years after the date you attained the certification.

CCIE Cisco Certified Internetwork Expert

Current CCIE Tracks before February 24th:

  • CCNP Routing and Switching
  • CCNP Collaboration
  • CCNP Data Center
  • CCNP Security
  • CCNP Service Provider
  • CCNP Wireless
  • CCDP Design

(No Cloud track unlike the CCNP)

New CCIE Tracks from February 24th:

  • CCNP Enterprise Infrastructure (focuses on wired networks)
  • CCNP Enterprise Wireless
  • CCIE Data Center
  • CCIE Security
  • CCIE Service Provider
  • CCIE Collaboration

Cisco Certified DevNet Expert is planned but the date it will be available has not been released yet.

Required Exams for CCIE:

Before February 24th, you need to do a written and a lab exam for each track.

From February 24th, you need to pass 2 exams for each track:

  • A technology core exam – same as for CCNP
  • A lab exam with 2 modules:
    • Design (3 hours)
    • Deploy, Operate and Optimize (5 hours)

Automation and Network Programmability is being added in the new exams.

As before there are no prerequisite exams you need to take before the CCIE. After the changeover, you need to recertify every 3 years, unlike the current rule which is every 2 years.

CCIE Change

RS exit stake in history stage, RS direction changed to Enterprise direction, existing RS certification automatically upgraded to enterprise infrastructure certification after the release of new certification

Design direction changed to DevNet direction, CCDA to DevNet Associate, CCDP to DevNet Professional

cisco cisco ccie certification 2020

Enterprise Infrastructure (Originally R&S) and Enterprise Wireless (Originally Wireless) take the same IE written test

NP written test and IE written test is the same, take the NP/IE written test can choose to directly take THE LAB to become CCIE or reference an optional examination to become CCNP, the exam is more flexible

cisco ccnp change

LAB exam modules changed from tS-DIAG-Configuration to design-and-deploy, operate and optimize two modules

module change
module change

The form of recertification has been changed to 120 credits to be activated, similar to NP certification, requiring only one core exam and one optional exam.

The next generation CCIE is still valid for 3 years, but more than 3 years only need to choose to re-test the written test to activate, no need to test LAB activation

Ten-year honor CCIE changed to 20-year honor CCIE That’s what’s in today’s Cisco workshop, six years of precipitation for the next generation of networking system changes

Summarize

Cisco’s transformation foreshadows a more systematic and diverse certification of the next generation of network engineers, advocating a single-specific (core exam) and multiple (optional exams) that will flexibly choose the direction and content of learning based on their own interests or business needs.

At the same time, there is automation and development in each direction, so that the original relatively simple implementation of delivery engineers have the opportunity to move to a higher level of design and research and development! New changes have brought new challenges, new opportunities, the positive embrace of the new era, but also the best era of our generation of network engineers.

Lead4pass has changed with the times, and now we’re the best! The new era will be even better! Helping everyone is the happiest thing about Lead4pass.

[Free Update] Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 practice test 2021

VendorCisco
Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: Cisco Certified Network Associate
CertificationCCNA
Total Questions: 506 Q&A
Updated on: 2021

Cisco CCNA 200-301 free exam questions and answers are updated throughout the year from Lead4Pass

QUESTION 1
Which type of attack is mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?
A. DDoS
B. malware
C. man-in-the-middle
D. worm
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors; one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor, and the
other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
A. 20
B. 90
C. 110
D. 115
Correct Answer: B
The Administrative Distance (AD) of EIGRP is 90 while the AD of OSPF is 110 so the EIGRP route will be chosen to install
into the routing table.

 

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 4
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implementing on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?
A. The EtherChannel must be configured in “mode active”.
B. When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps.
C. To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured.
D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-2/configguide/b_cg82/b_cg82_chapter_010101011.html

 

QUESTION 5
Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI
access?
A. HTTPS
B. RADIUS
C. TACACS+
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: A

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[Cisco CCNP] Get the latest updated Cisco 300-720 exam dumps online

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Cisco 300-720 exam practice questions and answers come from Lead4Pass and share a part for free

QUESTION 1
An administrator needs to configure Cisco ESA to ensure that emails are sent and authorized by the owner of the
domain. Which two steps must be performed to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Generate keys.
B. Create signing profile.
C. Create Mx record.
D. Enable SPF verification.
E. Create DMARC profile.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about configuring message filters within the Cisco ESA are true? (Choose two.)
A. The filters command executed from the CLI is used to configure the message filters.
B. Message filters configuration within the web user interface is located within Incoming Content Filters.
C. The filterconfig command executed from the CLI is used to configure message filters.
D. Message filters can be configured only from the CLI.
E. Message filters can be configured only from the web user interface.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/213940-esa-using-a-messagefilter-to-take-act.html

QUESTION 3
Which setting affects the aggressiveness of spam detection?
A. protection level
B. spam threshold
C. spam timeout
D. maximum depth of recursion scan
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/118220-technote-esa-00.html

QUESTION 4
Which feature must be enabled first when URL logging is configured on a Cisco ESA?
A. antivirus
B. antispam
C. senderbase reputation filter
D. virus outbreak filter
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/118775-technoteesa-00.html#:~:text=In%20order%20to%20implement%20URL,CLI%20by%20the%20ESA%20administrator.

QUESTION 5
Which feature utilizes sensor information obtained from Talos intelligence to filter email servers connecting into the
Cisco ESA?
A. SenderBase Reputation Filtering
B. Connection Reputation Filtering
C. Talos Reputation Filtering
D. SpamCop Reputation Filtering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA for the first time and needs to ensure that any email traffic coming from the
internal SMTP servers is relayed out through the Cisco ESA and is tied to the Outgoing Mail Policies. Which Mail Flow
Policy setting should be modified to accomplish this goal?
A. Exception List
B. Connection Behavior
C. Bounce Detection Signing
D. Reverse Connection Verification
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/118136-qanda-esa-00.html

QUESTION 7cisco 300-720 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. Which SPF record is valid for mycompany.com?
A. v=spf1 a mx ip4:199.209.31.2 -all
B. v=spf1 a mx ip4:10.1.10.23 -all
C. v=spf1 a mx ip4:199.209.31.21 -all
D. v=spf1 a mx ip4:172.16.18.230 -all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What is the order of virus scanning when multilayer antivirus scanning is configured?
A. The default engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.
B. The Sophos engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.
C. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the default engine scans for viruses second.
D. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the Sophos engine scans for viruses second.
Correct Answer: C
If you configure multi-layer anti-virus scanning, the Cisco appliance performs virus scanning with the McAfee engine first
and the Sophos engine second. It scans messages using both engines, unless the McAfee engine detects a virus. If the
McAfee engine detects a virus, the Cisco appliance performs the anti-virus actions (repairing, quarantining, etc.) defined
for the mail policy.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_01011.html

QUESTION 9
When email authentication is configured on Cisco ESA, which two key types should be selected on the signing profile?
(Choose two.)
A. DKIM
B. Public Keys
C. Domain Keys
D. Symmetric Keys
E. Private Keys
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/213939-esa-configure-dkimsigning.html

QUESTION 10
Users have been complaining of a higher volume of emails containing profanity. The network administrator will need to
leverage dictionaries and create specific conditions to reduce the number of inappropriate emails. Which two filters
should be configured to address this? (Choose two.)
A. message
B. spam
C. VOF
D. sender group
E. content
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the AsyncOS methods for performing DMARC verification from the left into the correct order on the right.
Select and Place:cisco 300-720 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

cisco 300-720 exam questions q11-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa11-1/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_11_1/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_11_1_chapter_010101.html

QUESTION 12
Which two steps configure Forged Email Detection? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a content dictionary with executive email addresses.
B. Configure a filter to use the Forged Email Detection rule and dictionary.
C. Configure a filter to check the Header From value against the Forged Email Detection dictionary.
D. Enable Forged Email Detection on the Security Services page.
E. Configure a content dictionary with friendly names.
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://explore.cisco.com/esa-feature-enablement/user-guide-for-async-11

QUESTION 13
Which type of query must be configured when setting up the Spam Quarantine while merging notifications?
A. Spam Quarantine Alias Routing Query
B. Spam Quarantine Alias Consolidation Query
C. Spam Quarantine Alias Authentication Query
D. Spam Quarantine Alias Masquerading Query
Correct Answer: B

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Cisco exam list with recommendations for all exam questions and answers

Organize the list of cisco exam certifications, share cisco exam questions and answers, and recommend the latest updated Lead4Pass exam dumps!

Cisco Exam List

Cisco certifications are divided into Cisco certifications and Specialist certifications. Share the list of Cisco certification exams and corresponding exam questions and answers, and Cisco Braindumps

Cisco certifications

Entry:

CCT Collaboration

100-890 CLTECH – Supporting Cisco Collaboration System Devices (CLTECH) v1.0 ( Exam Questions And Answer )


CCT Data Center

010-151 DCTECH – Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices (DCTECH) v3.0 ( Exam Questions And Answer )


CCT Routing & Switching

100-490 RSTECH – Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0 ( Exam Questions And Answer )


Associate:

CyberOps Associate

200-201 CBROPS – Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) ( Exam Questions And Answer )


DevNet Associate

200-901 DEVASC – Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC) ( Exam Questions And Answer )


CCNA

200-301 CCNAImplementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (CCNA) ( Exam Questions And Answer )


Professional:

CCNP Collaboration

350-801 CLCOR – Implementing and Operating Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (CLCOR) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-810 CLICA – Implementing Cisco Collaboration Applications (CLICA) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-815 CLACCM – Implementing Cisco Advanced Call Control and Mobility Services (CLACCM) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-820 CLCEI – Implementing Cisco Collaboration Cloud and Edge Solutions (CLCEI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-825 CLCNF – Implementing Cisco Collaboration Conferencing (CLCNF) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-835 CLAUTO – Implementing Automation for Cisco Collaboration Solutions (CLAUI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )


CyberOps Professional

350-201 CBRCORPerforming CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies (CBRCOR) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-215 CBRFIR – Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBRFIR) ( Exam Questions And Answer )


CCNP Data Center

350-601 DCCORImplementing and Operating Cisco Data Center Core Technologies (DCCOR) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-610 DCID – Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCID) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-615 DCIT – Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCIT) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-620 DCACIImplementing Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure (DCACI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-625 DCSANConfiguring Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches (DCMDS) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-630 DCACIAImplementing Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure – Advanced (DCACIA) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-635 DCAUTO – Implementing Automation for Cisco Data Center Solutions (DCAUI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )


DevNet Professional

350-901 DEVCORDeveloping Applications Using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-435 ENAUTO – Implementing Automation for Cisco Enterprise Solutions (ENAUI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-835 CLAUTO – Implementing Automation for Cisco Collaboration Solutions (CLAUI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-635 DCAUTO – Implementing Automation for Cisco Data Center Solutions (DCAUI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-535 SPAUTO – Implementing Automation for Cisco Service Provider Solutions (SPAUI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-735 SAUTO – Implementing Automation for Cisco Security Solutions (SAUI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-910 DEVOPS – Implementing DevOps Solutions and Practices using Cisco Platforms (DEVOPS) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-915 DEVIOT – Developing Solutions using Cisco IoT and Edge Platforms (DEVIOT) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-920 DEVWBX – Developing Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX) ( Exam Questions And Answer )


CCNP Enterprise

350-401 ENCORImplementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-410 ENARSIImplementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-415 ENSDWIImplementing Cisco SD-WAN Solutions (ENSDWI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-420 ENSLD – Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-425 ENWLSD – Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-430 ENWLSI – Implementing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-435 ENAUTO – Implementing Automation for Cisco Enterprise Solutions (ENAUI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )


CCNP Security

350-701 SCORImplementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-710 SNCFSecuring Networks with Cisco Firepower Next-Generation Firewall (SSNGFW) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-715 SISE – Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Services Engine (SISE) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-720 SESA – Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (SESA) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-725 SWSA – Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (SWSA) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-730 SVPNImplementing Secure Solutions with Virtual Private Networks (SVPN) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-735 SAUTO – Implementing Automation for Cisco Security Solutions (SAUI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )


CCNP Service Provider

350-501 SPCOR – Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-510 SPRI – Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions (SPRI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-515 SPVI – Implementing Cisco Service Provider VPN Services (SPVI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
300-535 SPAUTO – Implementing Automation for Cisco Service Provider Solutions (SPAUI) ( Exam Questions And Answer )


Expert:

CCIE Collaboration

Implementing and Operating Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (CLCOR 350-801)


CCIE Data Center

Implementing and Operating Cisco Data Center Core Technologies (DCCOR 350-601)


CCDE

CCDE written exam (CCDE 352-001)


CCIE Enteprise Infrastructure

Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR 350-401)


CCIE Enterprise Wireless

Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR 350-401)

CCIE Security

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701)


CCIE Service Provider

Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies (SPCOR 350-501)

Cisco Specialist certifications

Collaboration:

Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Specialist

500-440 UCCED – Deploying Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise (DUCCE) ( Exam Questions And Answer )
500-450 UCCEIS – Administering Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise, Part 1 (AUCCE1) And Administering Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise, Part 2 (AUCCE2) ( Exam Questions And Answer )

Data Center:

Cisco and NetApp FlexPod Design Specialist

500-173 FPDESIGNDesigning the FlexPod Solution v2.0 (FPDESIGN) ( Exam Questions And Answer )


Cisco and NetApp FlexPod Implementation and Administration Specialist

500-174 FPIMPADMImplementing and Administering the FlexPod Solution v2.0 (FPIMPADM) ( Exam Questions And Answer )

Meraki Solutions:

Cisco Meraki Solutions Specialist

500-220 ECMSEngineering Cisco Meraki Solutions Part 1 (ECMS1) And Engineering Cisco Meraki Solutions Part 2 (ECMS2) ( Exam Questions And Answer )

Customer Success:

Cisco Customer Success Manager

820-605 CSMCisco Customer Success Manager (DTCSM) ( Exam Questions And Answer )


Cisco Renewals Manager

Why certify?

Certifications are proof of knowledge, aptitude, and a lifelong learning mentality that puts you ahead of the competition. Certified employees are highly sought after by hiring managers and are trusted to connect, secure, and automate Cisco networks across the globe.​

Prepare to certify

Step 1: Review Prepare to take your exam by familiarizing yourself with the topics the exam will cover.

Step 2: Study & Train Once you know which topics will be on your exam, choose a studying or training option that works for you.

Step 3: Connect You don’t have to study alone. Join the appropriate Certification Community on the Cisco Learning Store and work alongside others who are studying the same material.

Step 4: Practice Practice through Cisco labs, simulation tools, and sandboxes to reach your certification goals.

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QUESTION 1
For each of the following statements, select yes if the statement is true, Otherwise select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
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[2021.1] lead4pass dp-900 exam questions q2-1

 

QUESTION 3
What are the two uses of data visualization? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Represent trends and patterns over time.
B. Communicate the significance of data.
C. implement machine learning to predict future values.
D. Consistently implement business logic across reports
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 4
You have a transactional application that stem data in an Azure SQ1 managed instance. When should you implement a
read-only database replica?
A. You need to generate reports without affecting the transactional workload.
B. You need to audit the transactional application.
C. You need to implement high availability in the event of a regional outage
D. You need to improve the recovery point objective (RPO).
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
You have an inventory management database that contains the following table.[2021.1] lead4pass dp-900 exam questions q5

Which statement should you use in a SQL query to change the inventory quantity of Product1 to 270?
A. INSERT B. MERGE
C. UPDATE
D. CREATE
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
You have an application that runs on Windows and requires across to a mapped drive.
Which Azure service should you use?
A. Azure Cosmos DB
B. Azure Table storage
C. Azure Files
D. Azure Blob Storage
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
At which two levels can you set the throughput for an Azure Cosmos DB account? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. container
B. item
C. database
D. partition
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 8
Which two Azure services can be used to provision Spark clusters? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Databricks
B. Azure Log Analytics
C. Azure Time Series Insights
D. Azure HDinsight
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 9
Which two activities can be performed entirely by using the Microsoft Power BI service? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. (Choose two.) NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. report and dashboard creation
B. report sharing and distribution
C. data modeling
D. data acquisition and preparation
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 10
Match the types of analytics that can be used to answer the business questions.
To answer, drag the appropriate analytics type from the column on the left to its question on the right. Each analytics
type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
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[2021.1] lead4pass dp-900 exam questions q10-1

 

QUESTION 11
Which scenario is an example of a streaming workload?
A. sending transactions that are older than a month to an archive
B. sending transactions daily from point of sale (POS) devices
C. sending telemetry data from edge devices
D. sending cloud infrastructure metadata every 30 minutes
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Your company recently reported sales from the third quarter. You have the chart shown in the following exhibit.[2021.1] lead4pass dp-900 exam questions q12

Which type of analysis is shown for the fourth quarter?
A. predictive
B. prescription
C. descriptive
D. diagnostic
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Your company is designing a data store that will contain student data. The data has the following format.[2021.1] lead4pass dp-900 exam questions q13

Which type of data store should you use?
A. graph
B. key/value
C. object
D. columnar
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
You receive numerous alerts from Azure Monitor for an Azure SQL database.
You need to reduce the number of alerts. You must only receive alerts if there is a significant change in usage patterns
for an extended period.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Set Threshold Sensitivity to High
B. Set the Alert logic threshold to Dynamic
C. Set the Alert logic threshold to Static
D. Set Threshold Sensitivity to Low
E. Set Force Plan to On
Correct Answer: BD
B: Dynamic Thresholds continuously learns the data of the metric series and tries to model it using a set of algorithms
and methods. It detects patterns in the data such as seasonality (Hourly / Daily / Weekly) and is able to handle noisy
metrics (such as machine CPU or memory) as well as metrics with low dispersion (such as availability and error rate).
D: Alert threshold sensitivity is a high-level concept that controls the amount of deviation from metric behavior required
to trigger an alert.
Low

 

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure SQL database that contains a table named Employees. Employees contain a column named
Salary.
You need to encrypt the Salary column. The solution must prevent database administrators from reading the data in the
Salary column and must provide the most secure encryption.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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[2021.1] lead4pass dp-300 exam questions q2-1

Step 1: Create a column master key
Create a column master key metadata entry before you create a column encryption key metadata entry in the database
and before any column in the database can be encrypted using Always Encrypted.
Step 2: Create a column encryption key.
Step 3: Encrypt the Salary column by using the randomized encryption type.
Randomized encryption uses a method that encrypts data in a less predictable manner. Randomized encryption is more
secure, but prevents searching, grouping, indexing, and joining on encrypted columns.
Note: A column encryption key metadata object contains one or two encrypted values of a column encryption key that is
used to encrypt data in a column. Each value is encrypted using a column master key.
Incorrect Answers:
Deterministic encryption.
Deterministic encryption always generates the same encrypted value for any given plain text value. Using deterministic
encryption allows point lookups, equality joins grouping and indexing on encrypted columns. However, it may also
allow
unauthorized users to guess information about encrypted values by examining patterns in the encrypted column,
especially if their \\’s a small set of possible encrypted values, such as True/False, or North/South/East/West region.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/encryption/always-encrypted-database-engine

 

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure SQL database named DB1.
You need to ensure that DB1 will support automatic failover without data loss if a datacenter fails. The solution must
minimize costs.
Which deployment option and pricing tier should you configure?
A. Azure SQL Database Premium
B. Azure SQL Database serverless
C. Azure SQL Database managed instance Business Critical
D. Azure SQL Database Standard
Correct Answer: A
By default, the cluster of nodes for the premium availability model is created in the same datacenter. With the
introduction of Azure Availability Zones, SQL Database can place different replicas of the Business Critical database to
different availability zones in the same region. To eliminate a single point of failure, the control ring is also duplicated
across multiple zones as three gateway rings (GW). The routing to a specific gateway ring is controlled by Azure Traffic
Manager (ATM). Because the zone redundant configuration in the Premium or Business Critical service tiers does not
create additional database redundancy, you can enable it at no extra cost. By selecting a zone redundant configuration,
you can make your Premium or Business Critical databases resilient to a much larger set of failures, including
catastrophic datacenter outages, without any changes to the application logic. You can also convert any existing
Premium or Business Critical databases or pools to the zone redundant configuration.
Incorrect Answers:
C. This feature is not available in SQL Managed Instance.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-sql/database/high-availability-sla


QUESTION 4
You have an Azure SQL database named sqldb1.
You need to minimize the possibility of Query Store transitioning to a read-only state.
What should you do?
A. Double the value of Data Flush interval
B. Decrease by half the value of Data Flush Interval
C. Double the value of Statistics Collection Interval
D. Decrease by half the value of Statistics Collection interval
Correct Answer: B
The Max Size (MB) limit isn\\’t strictly enforced. Storage size is checked only when Query Store writes data to disk. This
interval is set by the Data Flush Interval (Minutes) option. If Query Store has breached the maximum size limit between
storage size checks, it transitions to read-only mode.
Incorrect Answers: C: Statistics Collection Interval: Defines the level of granularity for the collected runtime statistic,
expressed in minutes. The default is 60 minutes. Consider using a lower value if you require finer granularity or less
time to detect and mitigate issues. Keep in mind that the value directly affects the size of the Query Store data.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/performance/best-practice-with-the-query-store

 

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure SQL Database managed instance named sqldbmi1 that contains a database named Sales.
You need to initiate a backup of Sales.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass dp-300 exam questions q5

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[2021.1] lead4pass dp-300 exam questions q5-1

Box 1: TO URL = \\’https://storage1.blob.core.windows.net/blob1/Sales.bak\\’
Native database backup in Azure SQL Managed Instance.
You can back up any database using the standard BACKUP T-SQL command:
BACKUP DATABASE tpcc2501
TO URL = \\’https://myacc.blob.core.windows.net/testcontainer/tpcc2501.bak\\’
WITH COPY_ONLY
Box 2: WITH COPY_ONLY
Reference:
https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/azure-sql-database/native-database-backup-in-azure-sql-managed-instance/bap/386154

 

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You have a resource group named App1Dev that contains an Azure SQL Database server named DevServer1.
DevServer1 contains an Azure SQL database named DB1. The schema and permissions for DB1 are saved in a
Microsoft SQL
Server Data Tools (SSDT) database project.
You need to populate a new resource group named App1Test with the DB1 database and an Azure SQL Server named
TestServer1. The resources in App1Test must have the same configurations as the resources in App1Dev.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
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[2021.1] lead4pass dp-300 exam questions q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
You have a version-8.0 Azure Database for MySQL database.
You need to identify which database queries consume the most resources.
Which tool should you use?
A. Query Store
B. Metrics
C. Query Performance Insight
D. Alerts
Correct Answer: A
The Query Store feature in Azure Database for MySQL provides a way to track query performance over time. Query
Store simplifies performance troubleshooting by helping you quickly find the longest-running and most resource-intensive queries. Query Store automatically captures a history of queries and runtime statistics, and it retains them for
your review. It separates data by time windows so that you can see database usage patterns. Data for all users,
databases, and queries are stored in the MySQL schema database in the Azure Database for MySQL instance.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/mysql/concepts-query-store

 

QUESTION 8
A data engineer creates a table to store employee information for a new application. All employee names are in the US
English alphabet. All addresses are locations in the United States. The data engineer uses the following statement to
create the table.[2021.1] lead4pass dp-300 exam questions q8

You need to recommend changes to the data types to reduce storage and improve performance. Which two actions
should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Change Salary to the money data type.
B. Change PhoneNumber to the float data type.
C. Change LastHireDate to the datetime2(7) data type.
D. Change PhoneNumber to the bigint data type.
E. Change LastHireDate to the date data type.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure SQL database that contains a table named Customer. The customer has the columns shown in the
following table.[2021.1] lead4pass dp-300 exam questions q9

You plan to implement a dynamic data mask for the Customer_Phone column. The mask must meet the following
requirements:
The first six numerals of each customer\\’s phone number must be masked. The last four digits of each customer\\’s
phone number must be visible. Hyphens must be preserved and displayed.
How should you configure the dynamic data mask? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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[2021.1] lead4pass dp-300 exam questions q9-1

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[2021.1] lead4pass dp-300 exam questions q9-2

Box 1: 0 Custom String: Masking method that exposes the first and last letters and adds a custom padding string in the
middle. prefix,[padding],suffix Box 2: xxx-xxx
Box 3: 5 Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/dynamic-data-masking

 

QUESTION 10
You have an Azure SQL database that contains a table named factSales. FactSales contains the columns shown in the
following table.[2021.1] lead4pass dp-300 exam questions q10

FactSales has 6 billion rows and is loaded nightly by using a batch process.
Which type of compression provides the greatest space reduction for the database?
A. page compression
B. row compression
C. columnstore compression
D. columnstore archival compression
Correct Answer: D
Columnstore tables and indexes are always stored with columnstore compression. You can further reduce the size of
column store data by configuring an additional compression called archival compression.
Note: Columnstore — The column store index is also logically organized as a table with rows and columns, but the data is
physically stored in a column-wise data format.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Rowstore — The rowstore index is the traditional style that has been around since the initial release of SQL Server.
For rowstore tables and indexes, use the data compression feature to help reduce the size of the database. Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/data-compression/data-compression

 

QUESTION 11
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 on a virtual network named VNet1. Outbound traffic from VM1 to the
internet is blocked.
You have an Azure SQL database named SqlDb1 on a logical server named SqlSrv1.
You need to implement connectivity between VM1 and SqlDb1 to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that all traffic to the public endpoint of SqlSrv1 is blocked.
Minimize the possibility of VM1 exfiltrating data stored in SqlDb1.
What should you create on VNet1?
A. a VPN gateway
B. a service endpoint
C. a private link
D. an ExpressRoute gateway
Correct Answer: C
Azure Private Link enables you to access Azure PaaS Services (for example, Azure Storage and SQL Database) and
Azure-hosted customer-owned/partner services over a private endpoint in your virtual network.
Traffic between your virtual network and the service travels the Microsoft backbone network. Exposing your service to
the public internet is no longer necessary.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/private-link/private-link-overview

 

QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2019 instance in an on-premises datacenter. The instance contains a 4-TB database
named DB1.
You plan to migrate DB1 to an Azure SQL Database managed instance.
What should you use to minimize downtime and data loss during the migration?
A. distributed availability groups
B. database mirroring
C. log shipping
D. Database Migration Assistant
Correct Answer: A
The Data Migration Assistant (DMA) helps you upgrade to a modern data platform by detecting compatibility issues that
can impact database functionality in your new version of SQL Server or Azure SQL Database. DMA recommends
performance and reliability improvements for your target environment and allows you to move your schema, data, and
uncontained objects from your source server to your target server.
Note: SQL Managed Instance supports the following database migration options (currently these are the only supported
migration methods):
Azure Database Migration Service – migration with near-zero downtime.
Native RESTORE DATABASE FROM URL – uses native backups from SQL Server and requires some downtime.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/dma/dma-overview


QUESTION 13
You have an Always On availability group deployed to Azure virtual machines. The availability group contains a
database named DB1 and has two nodes named SQL1 and SQL2. SQL1 is the primary replica.
You need to initiate a full backup of DB1 on SQL2.
Which statement should you run?
A. BACKUP DATABASE DB1 TO URL=\\’https://mystorageaccount.blob.core.windows.net/mycontainer/DB1.bak\\’ with
(Differential, STATS=5, COMPRESSION);
B. BACKUP DATABASE DB1 TO URL=\\’https://mystorageaccount.blob.core.windows.net/mycontainer/DB1.bak\\’ with
(COPY_ONLY, STATS=5, COMPRESSION);
C. BACKUP DATABASE DB1 TO URL=\\’https://mystorageaccount.blob.core.windows.net/mycontainer/DB1.bak\\’ with
(File_Snapshot, STATS=5, COMPRESSION);
D. BACKUP DATABASE DB1 TO URL=\\’https://mystorageaccount.blob.core.windows.net/mycontainer/DB1.bak\\’ with
(NoInit, STATS=5, COMPRESSION);
Correct Answer: B
BACKUP DATABASE supports only copy-only full backups of databases, files, or filegroups when it\\’s executed on
secondary replicas. Copy-only backups don\\’t impact the log chain or clear the differential bitmap. Incorrect Answers:
A: Differential backups are not supported on secondary replicas. The software displays this error because the
secondary replicas support copy-only database backups.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/database-engine/availability-groups/windows/active-secondariesbackup-on-secondary-replicas-always-on-availability-groups

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QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
A company uses outside carrier services for inbound and outbound deliveries.
Carrier services must be scheduled so that all trucks do not show up at the same time.
You need to configure the c module to schedule the loads.
How should you set up dock appointments? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass mb-330 practice test q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-330 practice test q1-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamicsax-2012/appuser-itpro/plan-appointments-for-a-load

 

QUESTION 2
A company receives a large quantity of inventory into the warehouse.
The inventory has a short shelf life and must be sent out to the stores as soon as possible.
You need to use Buyer\\’s push to transfer the inventory out to the stores.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a sales order.
B. Create transfer orders.
C. Select Product and ship open sales orders.
D. Select Product and distribution method.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamicsax-2012/appuser-itpro/use-buyer-s-push-to-distributeproducts


QUESTION 3
You need to complete the shipments. What should you do?
A. Confirm the load and generate packing slips and bills of lading.
B. Confirm shipments and generate pick/put work.
C. Create work for printing shipping documents and send an ASN.
D. Confirm the load, generate a picking list, and send an ASN.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
A company uses Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management and implements procurement categories.
Purchase requisitions are required for the purchase of procurement category goods.
You need to ensure that the company purchases office supplies only from one specific vendor.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Add the preferred vendor to the office supplies procurement category setup
B. Create a preferred trade agreement for the office supplies vendor
C. In purchasing policies, configure a specific category policy for office supplies
D. In purchasing policies create a Purchase requisition control rule
E. Configure the purchase requisition workflow to specify the office supplies vendor
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
A company is implementing inventory by using Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management.
You need to set up inventory journals and ensure that they are used for the correct processes.
Which journal types should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate journal types to the correct actions. Each journal
type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass mb-330 practice test q5

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/supply-chain/inventory/inventory-journa

 

QUESTION 6
Employee 1 needs to set up the new items for the product line
Which two actions should Employee1 perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create new finished goods and release to the legal entity
B. Create new raw materials and release them to the legal entity.
C. Create new finished goods with predefined variants and release them to the legal entity.
D. Create new finished goods and release them to the legal entity. Raw material products are not required for these items.
E. Create new raw materials with variants and release them to the legal entity.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 7
SIMULATION
You are a functional consultant for a company named Contoso Entertainment System USA (USMF).
You plan to trade a product named Professional Speaker Cable in the color gray.
You need to release all the available variants of Professional Speaker Cable in gray.
To complete this task, sign in to the Dynamics 365 portal.
Correct Answer: See below.
1.
Click Product information management > Common > Products > Product masters.
2.
Select a product master, and then click Release products in the Product authorization group on the Action Pane.
3.
Select all product variants in the Product variants group for the color gray.
4.
Leave the defaults on the Select companies link.
5.
Click OK to open the Product release session batch dialog box.
6.
Select the Show Infolog upon failure check box to be notified if the release is not completed.
7.
If the product master of the variants has not already been released to the company, select the Include product master
check box.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamicsax-2012/appuser-itpro/key-tasks-release-products


QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You need to configure settlement reports for the finance team.
Which processes should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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1.
Print Inventory Valuation Report
2.
Post Purchase Invoices

 

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
An inventory control clerk manages adjustments in inventory.
Some adjustments have a cost impact. Other adjustments must be posted to a specific ledger account or must be
registered in inventory.
You need to configure the system.
Which journal types should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass mb-330 practice test q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-330 practice test q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
You are implementing containerization functionality.
You must automate containerization so that containers and picking work for shipments are created when a wave is
processed. The work lines will be split into quantities to fit the required containers by size.
You need to set up a container build template that defines the containerization process.
Which three items should you set up before you create the container build template? Each correct answer presents part
of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a wave template that includes the containerized method
B. container packing policies
C. a container group
D. container types
E. container packing strategies
Correct Answer: ACD
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/warehousing/tasks/set-upcontainerization

 

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
A manufacturing company is setting up a new warehouse.
The warehouse must store a product that is currently stored in another warehouse.
You need to create new item coverage for the warehouse.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass mb-330 practice test q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-330 practice test q11-1

 

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
A company plans to stock new items and value those items by using the FIFO principle. The company has multiple sites set
up. There are multiple warehouses for each site.
You must be able to view the value and quantity of these items at each warehouse.
You need to apply FIFO costing per the warehouse.
How should you complete the costing setup? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass mb-330 practice test q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-330 practice test q12-1

 

QUESTION 13
A company plans to implement Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management shipping manifests.
The company wants to use a multiple-level manifest process.
You need to ensure that the system is configured for multiple-level manifest processing.
What should you validate?
A. All containers are manifested after the container group is manifested.
B. All containers are manifested before the container group is manifested.
C. The allows split picks configuration is enabled.
D. All container types are set up with all four attributes.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://cloudblogs.microsoft.com/dynamics365/no-audience/2016/12/01/improved-packing-functionalitydynamics-365-for-operations-1611/

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QUESTION 1
A client is implementing Accounts payable. The client wants to establish three-way matching for 100 of their 5,000
stocked items from a specific vendor.
The client requires the ability to have items that require only two-way matching and specific items that require three-way
matching.
You need to configure the system in the most efficient manner to achieve these requirements.
What should you do?
A. Configure a company matching policy of a three-way match
B. Configure a company matching policy of non-required and specify the items that require a three-way match
C. Configure a company matching policy of two-way matching and set the matching policy for specific item and vendor
combination level to three-way matching
D. Configure a company matching policy of two-way matching and specify the items that require a three-way match
E. Configure a company matching policy of two-way matching and specify the vendors that require a three-way match
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/accounts-payable/tasks/set-upaccounts-payable-invoice-matching-validation

 

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
A client is implementing the Budgeting module in Dynamics 365 Finance.
You need to configure the correct budget control area to meet the client\\’s requirements.
1.
Track budgeting control on purchase requisitions.
2.
Include unposted actual transactions in the calculation of the remaining budget for the period.
3.
Allow specific individuals to post transactions that exceed the budget.
4.
Specify main accounts that are subject to budget control, instead of selecting the Main account as a dimension for
budgeting.
What should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-310 practice test q2-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/budgeting/budget-control-overview-configuration

 

QUESTION 3
A company plans to create a new allocation rule for electric utility expenses.
The allocation rule must meet the following requirements:
Distribute overhead utility expenses to each department.
Define how and in what proportion the source amounts must be distributed on various destination lines.
You need to configure the allocation rule.
Which allocation method should you use?
A. Distribute the source document amount equally
B. Fixed weight
C. Equally
D. Basis
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/general-ledger/ledger-allocationrules

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
An organization sells monthly service subscriptions. The organization sends invoices to customers on the 15th of every
month in the amount of $450.00.
You need to set up, configure, and process recurring free text invoices for the customers.
In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area
and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass mb-310 practice test q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-310 practice test q4-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/accounts-receivable/set-upprocess-recurring-invoices

 

QUESTION 5
You need to adjust the sales tax configuration to resolve the issue for User3. What should you do?
A. Create multiple settlement periods and assign them to the US tax vendor.
B. Create multiple sales tax remittance vendors and assign them to the settlement period.
C. Run the payment proposal to generate sales tax liability payments.
D. Create a state-specific settlement period and assign the US tax vendor to the settlement period.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
A customer uses the sales tax functionality in Dynamics 365 Finance.
The customer reports that when a sales order is created, sales tax does not calculate on the line.
You need to determine why sales tax is not calculated.
What are two possible reasons? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. The sales tax group is populated on the line, but the item sales tax group is missing.
B. The sales tax settlement account is not configured correctly.
C. The sales tax authority is not set up for the correct jurisdiction.
D. The sales tax code and item sales tax code is selected, but the sales tax group is not associated with both codes.
E. The sales tax group and item sales tax group are selected, but the sales tax code is not associated with both groups.
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/general-ledger/indirect-taxes-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/general-ledger/tasks/set-up-sales-tax-groups-item-sales-taxgroups

 

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
A customer plans to implement invoice validation policies.
You need to recommend the features needed to meet each of the customer\\’s requirements.
What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate features to the correct requirements. Each feature may
be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass mb-310 practice test q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-310 practice test q7-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/finance/accounts-payable/tasks/set-up-accounts-payableinvoice-matching-validation

 

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
A food manufacturer uses commodities such as beans, corn, and chili peppers as raw materials. The prices of the
commodities fluctuate frequently. The manufacturer wants to use cost versions to simulate these fluctuations.
You need to set up cost versions and prices to accomplish the manufacturer\\’s goal.
For which purpose should you use each costing type? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass mb-310 practice test q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-310 practice test q8-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/supply-chain/cost-management/costingversions

 

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You are setting up the process for an expense report approval in Dynamics 365 Finance.
You need to assign permission for each participant in the workflow approval process to perform their tasks.
Which action can each participant perform? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass mb-310 practice test q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-310 practice test q9-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/fin-and-ops/organizationadministration/workflow-actions

 

QUESTION 10
You work for a company that receives invoices in foreign currencies.
You need to configure the currency exchange rate providers and exchange rate types.
What should you do?
A. Configure exchange rate provider, create exchange rate type, and import the currency exchange rates.
B. Select the appropriate HTML key values from the available exchange rate providers. Then, use the provider for
importing one currency exchange rate type.
C. Use a developer to write the HTML key values code to configure the currency exchange rate providers. Then, use the
provider for importing a currency exchange rate type.
D. Use a developer to write the XML key values code to configure the currency exchange rate providers. Then, use the
provider for importing a currency exchange rate type.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://community.dynamics.com/365/financeandoperations/b/365operationsbysandeepchaudhury/posts/configure-currency-exchange-rate-providers-and-import-exchange-rates-automatically-in-dynamics-365-for-finance-andoperations

 

QUESTION 11
A client has multiple legal entities set up in Dynamics 365 Finance. All companies and data reside in Dynamics 365
Finance.
The client currently uses a separate reporting tool to perform their financial consolidation and eliminations. They want to
use Dynamics 365 Finance instead.
You need to configure the system and correctly perform eliminations.
Solution: Set up Elimination rules in the system. Then, run an elimination proposal. Configure the rules to post to any
company that has Used for financial elimination process selected in the legal entity setup.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/budgeting/consolidationelimination-overview

 

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are setting up a budget plan to accurately portray the projected budget for a company.
You need to select the appropriate allocation method for data distribution.
Which allocation methods should you use? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass mb-310 practice test q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-310 practice test q12-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/budgeting/budget-planning-dataallocation

 

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
A retail company has outlets in multiple locations. Taxes vary depending on the location.
You need to configure the various components of the tax framework.
In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area
and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass mb-310 practice test q13

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/financials/general-ledger/indirect-taxesoverview

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QUESTION 1
You are developing a web app that is protected by the Azure Web Application Firewall (WAF). All traffic to the web app is
routed through an Azure Application Gateway instance that is used by multiple web apps. The web app address is
contoso.azurewebsites.net.
All traffic must be secured with SSL. The Azure Application Gateway instance is used by multiple web apps.
You need to configure the Azure Application Gateway for the app.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. In the Azure Application Gateway\\’s HTTP setting, enable the Use for App service setting.
B. Convert the web app to run in an Azure App Service Environment (ASE).
C. Add an authentication certificate for contoso.azurewebsites.net to the Azure Application gateway.
D. In the Azure Application Gateway, \\’s HTTP setting set the value of the Override backend path option to
contoso22.azurewebsites.net.
Correct Answer: AD
D: The ability to specify a host override is defined in the HTTP settings and can be applied to any back-end pool during
rule creation. The ability to derive the hostname from the IP or FQDN of the back-end pool members. HTTP settings
also
provide an option to dynamically pick the hostname from a back-end pool member\\’s FQDN if configured with the
option to derive hostname from an individual back-end pool member.
A (not C): SSL termination and end to end SSL with multi-tenant services.
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Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/application-gateway-web-app-overview

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You are validating the configuration of an Azure Search indexer.
The service has been configured with an indexer that uses the Import Data option. The index is configured using options
as shown in the Index Configuration exhibit. (Click the Index Configuration tab.)

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You use an Azure table as the data source for the import operation. The table contains three records with item inventory
data that match the fields in the Storage data exhibit. These records were imported when the index was created.
(Click the Storage Data tab.) When users search with no filter, all three records are displayed.

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q2-1

When users search for items by description, Search explorer returns no records. The Search Explorer exhibit shows the
query and results for a test. In the test, a user is trying to search for all items in the table that have a description that
contains the word bag. (Click the Search Explorer tab.)

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q2-2

You need to resolve the issue.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q2-3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q2-4

Box 1: Yes
The item description field is not searchable.
Box 2: No
The item description field is not searchable, but we would need to recreate the index.
Box 3: Yes
An indexer in Azure Search is a crawler that extracts searchable data and metadata from an external Azure data source
and populates an index based on field-to-field mappings between the index and your data source. This approach is
sometimes referred to as a \\’pull model\\’ because the service pulls data in without you having to write any code that
adds data to an index.
Box 4: No
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/search/search-what-is-an-index
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/search/search-indexer-overview

QUESTION 3
A company is developing a solution that allows smart refrigerators to send temperature information to a central location.
The solution must receive and store messages until they can be processed. You create an Azure Service Bus instance
by providing a name, pricing tier, subscription, resource group, and location.
You need to complete the configuration.
Which Azure CLI or PowerShell command should you run?

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q3

A. B. C. D.
Correct Answer: B
# Create a Service Bus messaging namespace with a unique name. Example:
namespaceName=myNameSpace$RANDOM az servicebus namespace create –resource-group $resourceGroupName
–name $namespaceName –location eastus
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-bus-messaging/service-bus-quickstart-cli

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You have a web service that is used to pay for food deliveries. The web service uses Azure Cosmos DB as the data
store.
You plan to add a new feature that allows users to set a tip amount. The new feature requires that a property named tip
on the document in Cosmos DB must be present and contain a numeric value.
There are many existing websites and mobile apps that use the web service that will not be updated to set the tip
property for some time.
How should you complete the trigger?
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q4-1

Box 1: getContext().getRequest();
Box 2: if(isNaN(i)[“tip”] ..
In JavaScript, there are two ways to check if a variable is a number :
isNaN() – Stands for “is Not a Number”, if the variable is not a number, it returns true, else return false.
typeof – If a variable is a number, it will return a string named “number”.
Box 3:r.setBody(i);
// update the item that will be created References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/cosmos-db/how-to-write-stored-procedures-triggers-udfs
https://mkyong.com/javascript/check-if-variable-is-a-number-in-javascript/

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You develop software solutions for mobile delivery service. You are developing a mobile app that users can use to
order from a restaurant in their area; The app uses the following workflow:
1.
A driver selects the restaurants for which they will deliver orders.
2.
Orders are sent to all available drivers in an area;
3.
Only orders for the selected restaurants will appear for the driver.
4.
The first driver to accept an order removes it from the list of available orders.
You need to implement an Azure Service Bus solution.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place: 

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q5-1

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You are developing a software solution for an autonomous transportation system. The solution uses large data sets and
Azure Batch processing to simulate navigation sets for entire fleets of vehicles.
You need to create compute nodes for the solution on Azure Batch.
What should you do?
Put the actions in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q6-1

With the Azure Portal:
Step 1: In the Azure portal, create a Batch account.
First, we create a batch account.
Step 2: In the Azure portal, create a pool of compute nodes

Now that you have a Batch account, create a sample pool of Windows compute nodes for test purposes.
Step 3: In the Azure portal, add a Job.
Now that you have a pool, create a job to run on it. A Batch job is a logical group for one or more tasks. A job includes
settings common to the tasks, such as priority and the pool to run tasks on. Initially, the job has no tasks.
Step 4: In the Azure portal, create tasks
Now create sample tasks to run in the job. Typically you create multiple tasks that Batch queues and distributes to run
on the compute nodes.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/quick-create-portal

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Contoso, Ltd. provides an API to customers by using Azure API Management (APIM). The API authorizes users with a
JWT token. You must implement response caching for the APIM freeway. The caching mechanism must detect the user ID of the client that accesses data for a given location and cache the response for that user ID. You need to add the
following policies to the policies file: a set-variable policy to store the detected user identity a cache-lookup-value policy
a cache-store-value policy a find-and-replace policy to update the response body with the user profile information To
which policy section should you add the policies? To answer, drag the appropriate sections to the correct policies. Each section may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point
Select and Place:

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q7

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
You are developing a software solution for an autonomous transportation system. The solution uses large data sets and
Azure Batch processing to simulate navigation sets for entire fleets of vehicles.
You need to create compute nodes for the solution on Azure Batch.
What should you do?
Put the actions in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q8

QUESTION 9

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
Margie\\’s Travel is an international travel and booking management service. The company is expanding into
restaurant bookings. You are tasked with implementing Azure Search for the restaurants listed in their solution.
You create the index in Azure Search.
You need to import the restaurant data into the Azure Search service by using the Azure Search .NET SDK.
Solution:
1.
Create a SearchServiceClient object to connect to the search index.
2.
Create a DataContainer that contains the documents which must be added.
3.
Create a DataSource instance and set its Container property to the DataContainer.
4.
Set the DataSources property of the SearchServiceClient.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Use the following method:
1.
– Create a SearchIndexClient object to connect to the search index
2.
– Create an IndexBatch that contains the documents which must be added.
3.
– Call the Documents. Index method of the SearchIndexClient and pass the IndexBatch.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/search/search-howto-dotnet-sdk

QUESTION 10
You are creating a hazard notification system that has a single signaling server which triggers audio and visual alarms
to start and stop.
You implement the Azure Service Bus to publish alarms. Each alarm controller uses the Azure Service Bus to receive alarm
signals as part of a transaction. Alarm events must be recorded for audit purposes. Each transaction record must
include
information about the alarm type that was activated.
You need to implement a reply trail auditing solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Assign the value of the hazard message MessageId property to the DeliveryCount property.
B. Assign the value of the hazard message SequenceNumber property to the DeliveryCount property.
C. Assign the value of the hazard message MessageId property to the SequenceNumber property.
D. Assign the value of the hazard message MessageId property to the CorrelationId property.
E. Assign the value of the hazard message SessionID property to the SequenceNumber property..
F. Assign the value of the hazard message SessionID property to the ReplyToSessionId property.
Correct Answer: DF
D: CorrelationId: Enables an application to specify a context for the message for the purposes of correlation; for
example, reflecting the MessageId of a message that is being replied to.
F: ReplyToSessionId: This value augments the ReplyTo information and specifies which SessionId should be set for the
reply when sent to the reply entity.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B: DeliveryCount
A number of deliveries that have been attempted for this message. The count is incremented when a message lock
expires, or the message is explicitly abandoned by the receiver. This property is read-only.
C, E: SequenceNumber
The sequence number is a unique 64-bit integer assigned to a message as it is accepted and stored by the broker and
functions as its true identifier. For partitioned entities, the topmost 16 bits reflect the partition identifier. Sequence
numbers
monotonically increase and are gapless. They roll over to 0 when the 48-64 bit range is exhausted. This property is read-only.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-bus-messaging/service-bus-messages-payloads

QUESTION 11

HOTSPOT
You develop news and blog content delivery app for Windows devices.
A notification must arrive on a user\\’s device when there is a new article available for them to view.
You need to implement push notifications.
How should you complete the code segment? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area;
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q11

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q11-2 lead4pass az-204 exam questions q11-3

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You plan to deploy a web app to App Service on Linux. You create an App Service plan. You create and push a custom
Docker image that contains the web app to Azure Container Registry.
You need to access the console logs generated from inside the container in real-time.

How should you complete the Azure CLI command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q12-1

Box 1: config To Configure logging for a web app using the command: az web app log config Box 2: –docker-container logging Syntax include: az webapp log config [–docker-container-logging {filesystem, off}] Box 3: webapp To download
a web app\\’s log history as a zip file use the command: az webapp log download Box 4: download
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cli/azure/webapp/log

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
You are developing an ASP.NET Core Web API web service that uses Azure Application Insights to monitor
performance and trade events.
You need to enable logging and ensure that log messages can be correlated to events tracked by Application Insights.
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations. Each a code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at alt. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q13

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-204 exam questions q13-1

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Latest updates Microsoft AZ-104 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources in the following table.

lead4pass az-104 exam questions q1

VM1 and VM2 are deployed from the same template and host line-of-business applications accessed by using Remote
Desktop. You configure the network security group (NSG) shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

lead4pass az-104 exam questions q1-1

You need to prevent users of VM1 and VM2 from accessing websites on the Internet. What should you do?
A. Associate the NSG to Subnet1.
B. Disassociate the NSG from a network interface.
C. Change the DenyWebSites outbound security rule.
D. Change the Port_80 inbound security rule.
Correct Answer: A
You can associate or dissociate a network security group from a network interface or subnet. The NSG has the
appropriate rule to block users from accessing the Internet. We just need to associate it with Subnet1. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/manage-network-security-group

QUESTION 2
You download an Azure Resource Manager template based on an existing virtual machine. The template will be used to
deploy 100 virtual machines. You need to modify the template to reference an administrative password. You must
prevent the password from being stored in plain text.
What should you create to store the password?
A. Azure Active Directory (AD) Identity Protection and an Azure policy
B. a Recovery Services vault and a backup policy
C. an Azure Key Vault and an access policy
D. an Azure Storage account and an access policy
Correct Answer: C
You can use a template that allows you to deploy a simple Windows VM by retrieving the password that is stored in a
Key Vault. Therefore the password is never put in plain text in the template parameter file. References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/resources/templates/101-vm-secure-password/

QUESTION 3
You need to define a custom domain name for Azure AD to support the planned infrastructure.
Which domain name should you use?
A. Join the client computers in the Miami office to Azure AD.
B. Add http://autologon.microsoftazuread-sso.com to the intranet zone of each client computer in the Miami office.
C. Allow inbound TCP port 8080 to the domain controllers in the Miami office.
D. Install Azure AD Connect on a server in the Miami office and enable Pass-through Authentication

E. Install the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) role on a domain controller in the Miami office.
Correct Answer: BD
Every Azure AD directory comes with an initial domain name in the form of domainname.onmicrosoft.com. The initial
domain name cannot be changed or deleted, but you can add your corporate domain name to Azure AD as well. For
example, your organization probably has other domain names used to do business and users who sign in using your
corporate domain name. Adding custom domain names to Azure AD allows you to assign user names in the directory
that are familiar to your users, such as \\’[email protected]\\’ instead of \\’[email protected] name.onmicrosoft.com\\’.
Scenario: Network Infrastructure: Each office has a local data center that contains all the servers for that office. Each
office has a dedicated connection to the Internet. Humongous Insurance has a single-domain Active Directory forest
named humongousinsurance.com Planned Azure AD Infrastructure: The on-premises Active Directory domain will be
synchronized to Azure AD. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/fundamentals/addcustom-domain

QUESTION 4
You need to define a custom domain name for Azure AD to support the planned infrastructure. Which domain name
should you use it?
A. ad.humongousinsurance.com
B. humongousinsurance.onmicrosoft.com
C. humongousinsurance.local
D. humongousinsurance.com
Correct Answer: D
Every Azure AD directory comes with an initial domain name in the form of domainname.onmicrosoft.com. The initial
domain name cannot be changed or deleted, but you can add your corporate domain name to Azure AD as well. For
example, your organization probably has other domain names used to do business and users who sign in using your
corporate domain name. Adding custom domain names to Azure AD allows you to assign user names in the directory
that are familiar to your users, such as \\’[email protected]\\’ instead of \\’[email protected] name.onmicrosoft.com\\’.
Scenario: Network Infrastructure: Each office has a local data center that contains all the servers for that office. Each
office has a dedicated connection to the Internet. Humongous Insurance has a single-domain Active Directory forest
named humongousinsurance.com Planned Azure AD Infrastructure: The on-premises Active Directory domain will be
synchronized to Azure AD. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/fundamentals/addcustom-domain

QUESTION 5
You need to use Azure Automation State Configuration to manage the ongoing consistency of the virtual machine
configurations.
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate action from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You
will
receive credit for any of the correct orders you select.
Select and Place:

lead4pass az-104 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-104 exam questions q5-1

Step 1: Upload a configuration to the Azure Automation State Configuration. Import the configuration into the Automation
account.

Step 2: Compile a configuration into a node configuration. A DSC configuration defining that state must be compiled into
one or more node configurations (MOF document), and placed on the Automation DSC Pull Server.
Step 3: Onboard the virtual machines to Azure Automation State Configuration. Onboard the Azure VM for management
with Azure Automation State Configuration
Step 4: Assign the node configuration
Step 5: Check the compliance status of the node Each time Azure Automation State Configuration performs a
consistency check on a managed node, the node sends a status report back to the pull server. You can view these
reports on the page for that node. On the blade for an individual report, you can see the following status information for
the corresponding consistency check: The report states – whether the node is “Compliant”, the configuration “Failed”, or
the node is “Not Compliant”
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/automation/automation-dsc-getting-started

QUESTION 6
You have a virtual network named VNet1 that has the configuration shown in the following exhibit.

lead4pass az-104 exam questions q6

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-104 exam questions q6-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-104 exam questions q6-2

Box 1: add a subnet Your IaaS virtual machines (VMs) and PaaS role instances in a virtual network automatically
receive a private IP address from a range that you specify, based on the subnet they are connected to. We need to add
the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet. Box 2: add a network interface The 10.2.1.0/24 network exists. We need to add a network
interface. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-networks-static-private-IP-armpportal

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it.
As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription that contains the following resources:
* A virtual network that has a subnet named Subnet1
*
Two network security groups (NSGs) named NSG-VM1 and NSG-Subnet1
*
A virtual machine named VM1 that has the required Windows Server configurations to allow Remote Desktop
connections NSG-Subnet1 has the default inbound security rules only. NSG-VM1 has the default inbound security rules
and the following custom inbound security rule:
*
Priority: 100
*
Source: Any
* Source port range: * * Destination: *
*
Destination port range: 3389
*
Protocol: UDP
*
Action: Allow
VM1 connects to Subnet1. NSG1-VM1 is associated with the network interface of VM1. NSG-Subnet1 is associated with
Subnet1.
You need to be able to establish Remote Desktop connections from the internet to VM1. Solution: You add an inbound
security rule to NSG-Subnet1 that allows connections from the Any source to the VirtualNetwork destination for port
range
3389 and uses the TCP protocol. You remove NSG-VM1 from the network interface of VM1.
Does this meet the goal?
A.
Yes
B.
No
Correct Answer: B
The default port for RDP is TCP port 3389. A rule to permit RDP traffic must be created automatically when you create
your VM.  Note on NSG-Subnet1: Azure routes network traffic between all subnets in a virtual network, by default.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/troubleshooting/troubleshoot-rdp-connection

QUESTION 8
You need to the appropriate sizes for the Azure virtual for Server2. What should you do? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: 

lead4pass az-104 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-104 exam questions q8-1

Box 1: Create a Recovery Services vault
Create a Recovery Services vault on the Azure Portal.
Box 2: Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider
Azure Site Recovery can be used to manage the migration of on-premises machines to Azure. Scenario: Migrate the virtual
machines hosted on Server1 and Server2 to Azure.
Server2 has the Hyper-V host role.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/migrate-tutorial-on-premises-azure

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it.
As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Adatum and an Azure subscription named Subscription1.
Adam contains a group named Developers. Subscription1 contains a resource group named Dev.
You need to provide the developer group with the ability to create Azure logic apps in the Dev resource group.
Solution: On Dev, you assign the Logic App Contributor role to the Developers group.

Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
The Logic App Contributor role lets you manage the logic app, but not access to them. It provides access to view, edit, and
update a logic app.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-securing-a-logic-app

QUESTION 10
You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources shown in the following table.

lead4pass az-104 exam questions q10

You need to create a network interface named NIC1. In which location can you create NIC1?
A. East US and North Europe only.
B. East US and West Europe only.
C. East US, West Europe, and North Europe.
D. East US only.
Correct Answer: D
A virtual network is required when you create a NIC. Select the virtual network for the network interface. You can only
assign a network interface to a virtual network that exists in the same subscription and location as the network
interface.
Once a network interface is created, you cannot change the virtual network it is assigned to. The virtual machine you
add the network interface to must also exist in the same location and subscription as the network interface.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-network-interface

QUESTION 11

You create a virtual machine scale set named Scale1. Scale1 is configured as shown in the following exhibit.

lead4pass az-104 exam questions q11

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-104 exam questions q11-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-104 exam questions q11-2

Box 1:
The Autoscale scale-out rule increases the number of VMs by 2 if the CPU threshold is 80% or higher. The initial
instance count is 4 and rises to 6 when the 2 extra instances of VMs are added.
Box 2:
The Autoscale scale in rule decreases the number of VMs by 4 if the CPU threshold is 30% or lower. The initial instance
count is 4 and thus cannot be reduced to 0 as the minimum instances is set to 2. Instances are only added when the
CPU threshold reaches 80%.
References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/autoscale-overview https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/azure-monitor/platform/autoscale-best-practices https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azuremonitor/platform/autoscale-common-scale-patterns

QUESTION 12
You plan to create an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that will be configured as shown in the following exhibit. The
planned disk configurations for VM1 are shown in the following exhibit.

lead4pass az-104 exam questions q12 lead4pass az-104 exam questions q12-1

You need to ensure that VM1 can be created in an Availability Zone. Which two settings should you modify? Each
correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Use managed disks
B. Availability options
C. OS disk type
D. Size
E. Image
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that contains the resources shown in the following table.

lead4pass az-104 exam questions q13

You plan to use Vault1 for the backup of as many virtual machines as possible. Which virtual machines can be backed
up to Vault1?
A. VM1, VM3, VMA, and VMC only
B. VM1 and VM3 only

C. VM1, VM2, VM3, VMA, VMB, and VMC
D. VM1 only E. VM3 and VMC only
Correct Answer: A
To create a vault to protect virtual machines, the vault must be in the same region as the virtual machines. If you have
virtual machines in several regions create a Recovery Services vault in each region.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-cyrl-ba/azure/backup/backup-create-rs-vault

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