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Skills measured: This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

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“Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core” Exam MB-300.
Candidates for this exam are functional consultants who analyze business requirements and translate those requirements into fully realized business processes and solutions that implement industry best practices. Candidates serve as a key resource in implementing and configuring applications to meet business requirements.

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Cisco CCDE written exam will validate that professionals have the expertise to gather and clarify network functional requirements, develop network designs to meet functional specifications, develop an implementation plan, convey design decisions and their rationale, and possess expert-level network infrastructure knowledge.

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about the MPLS feature set is true?
A. It is not license dependent.
B. It can be installed from any VDC.
C. It can be enabled only in the default VDC.
D. It must be installed from the default VDC.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
You have multiple OTV edge devices in each OTV site. Which configuration prevents an end-to-end STP loop?
A. FHRP filtering
B. selective unicast flooding
C. AED election
D. ARP local caching
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/whitepaper/DCI3_OTV_Intro/DCI_1.html

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address does N9K-1 use to represent itself when connecting to a remote NVE peer?

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We share the latest exam dumps throughout the year to help you improve your skills and experience! The latest Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 exam dumps, online exam Practice test to test your strength, Cisco 300-070 “Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 (CIPTV1)” in https://www.leads4pass.com/300-070.html Update the exam content throughout the year to ensure that all exam content is authentic and valid. 300-070 PDF Online download for easy learning.

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We share the latest exam dumps throughout the year to help you improve your skills and experience! The latest Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 exam
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QUESTION 1
What is the common artifact that is used to uniquely identify a detected file?
A. Hash
B. Timestamp
C. File size
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which CVSSv3 Attack Vector metric value requires the attacker to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable
component?
A. local
B. physical
C. network
D. adjacent
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which element is included in an incident response plan?
A. organization mission
B. junior analyst approval
C. day-to-day firefighting
D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is an example of a managed security offering where incident response experts monitor and
respond to security alerts in a security operations center (SOC)?
A. Cisco CloudLock
B. Cisco\\’s

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Exam 70-462: Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-462.aspx

Skills measured

  • Install and configure (20–25%)
  • Maintain instances and databases (15–20%)
  • Optimize and troubleshoot (15–20%)
  • Manage data (20–25%)
  • Implement security (15–20%)
  • Implement high availability (5–10%)

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Latest effective Microsoft Business Intelligence 70-462 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You administer all the deployments of Microsoft SQL Server 2012 in your company. You need to ensure that data
changes are sent to a non-SQL Server database server in near real time. You also need to ensure that data on the
primary
server is unaffected.
Which configuration should you use?
A.
SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform transactional replication
B.
Two servers configured in different data centers
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit Availability Mode
C.
Two servers configured in different data centers
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode
One server configured as an Active Secondary
D.
SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform snapshot replication
E.
Two servers configured in the same data center
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit Availability Mode
One server configured as an Active Secondary
F.
Two servers configured on the same subnet
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode
G.
Two servers configured in a Windows Failover Cluster in the same data center
SQL Server configured as a clustered instance
H.
Two servers configured in the same data center
A primary server configured to perform log-shipping every 10 minutes
A backup server configured as a warm standby
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/ms151149.aspx

QUESTION 2
What is the minimum recommended amount of RAM for SQL Server 2012 Enterprise?
A. 512 MB
B. 1 GB
C. 2 GB
D. 4 GB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You are a database administrator for a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 environment. You want to deploy a new application
that will scale out the workload to at least five different SQL Server instances. You need to ensure that for each copy of
the
database, users are able to read and write data that will then be synchronized between all of the database instances.
Which feature should you use?
A. Database Mirroring
B. Peer-to-Peer Replication
C. Log Shipping
D. AvailabilityGroups
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which feature should you enable and configure so session requests addressed to a specific instance can be allocated
different processor resources based on session request properties?
A. Resource Governor
B. Windows System Resource Manager
C. Processor affinity
D. I/O affinity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database. The
transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting
database is only updated from the transactional database.
The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table:lead4pass 70-462 exam question q5The differential backup of the reporting database fails. Then, the reporting database fails at 14:00 hours. You need to
ensure that the reporting database is restored. You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal. What should you do?
A. Restorethelatestfullbackup, andrestorethelatestdifferentialbackup.Then, restorethelatestlogbackup.
B. Perform a point-in-time restore.
C. Restore the latest full backup.
D. Restorethe latestfullbackup, andrestore thelatestdifferential backup.Then, restoreeachlog backuptaken before the
time of failure from the most recent differential backup.
E. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup.
F. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most
recentfull backup.
G. Perform a page restore.
H. Perform a partial restore.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Before moving an SQL Server 2012 database file to a new location, which of the following must first be accomplished?
A. The database must be set to OFFLINE.
B. The SQL Server Service must be stopped.
C. The database must be deleted.
D. The database must have the shrink” operation run.
Correct Answer: A
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/ms345483%28v=sql.110%29.aspx

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is a disaster recovery solution offered in SQL Server 2012 and involves maintaining a standby
copy of a primary database?
A. AlwaysOn
B. Log Shipping
C. Clustering
D. DataGuard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a valid upgrade path for SQL Server 2012?
A. SQL Server 2000 -> SQL Server 2012
B. SQL Server 2000 -> SQL Server 2005 -> SQL Server 2012
C. SQL Server 7 -> SQL Server 2012
D. Oracle 11g -> SQL Server 2012
Correct Answer: B
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms143393%28v=sql.110%29.aspx https://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/ms143393%28v=sql.90%29.aspx

QUESTION 9
You are developing a database application by using Microsoft SQL Server 2012. An application that uses a database
begins to run slowly.
You discover that a large amount of memory is consumed by single-use dynamic queries. You need to reduce
procedure cache usage from these statements without creating any additional indexes.
What should you do?
A. Add a HASH hint to the query.
B. Add a LOOP hint to the query.
C. AddaFORCESEEKhinttothequery.
D. Add an INCLUDE clause to the index.
E. Add a FORCESCAN hint to the Attach query.
F. Add a columnstore index to cover the query.
G. Enable the optimize for ad hoc workloads option.
H. Cover the unique clustered index with a columnstore index.
I. Include a SET FORCEPLAN ON statement before you run the query.
J. IncludeaSETSTATISTICSPROFILE ONstatementbeforeyou runthequery.
K. Include a SET STATISTICS SHOWPLAN_XML ON statement before you run the query.
L. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL REPEATABLE READ statement before you run the query.
M. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SNAPSHOT statement before you run the query.
N. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE statement before you run the query.
Correct Answer: G
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en -us/library/cc645587.aspx

QUESTION 10
You administer several Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database servers. Merge replication has been configured for an
application that is distributed across offices throughout a wide area network (WAN). Many of the tables involved in
replication
use the XML and varchar (max) data types. Occasionally, merge replication fails due to timeout errors.
You need to reduce the occurrence of these timeout errors.
What should you do?
A. Set the Merge agent on the problem subscribers to use the slow link agent profile.
B. Create a snapshot publication, and reconfigure the problem subscribers to use the snapshot publication.
C. Change the Merge agent on the problem subscribers to run continuously.
D. Set the Remote Connection Timeout on the Publisher to 0.
Correct Answer: A
When replication is configured, a set of agent profiles is installed on the Distributor. An agent profile contains a set of
parameters that are used each time an agent runs: each agent logs in to the Distributor during its startup process and
queries for the parameters in its profile. For merge subscriptions that use Web synchronization, profiles are downloaded
and stored at the Subscriber. If the profile is changed, the profile at the Subscriber is updated the next time the Merge
Agent runs. For more information about Web synchronization, see Web Synchronization for Merge Replication.

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Online Practice test CompTIA CASP CAS-002 exam questions, 100% real and effective exam questions answers, easy access to CAS-002 dumps enhance your skills and experience, CAS-002 PDF online Download, Meetexams updates valid exam dumps throughout the year for full CAS-002 exam dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/cas-002.html (Total Questions: 733 Q&A)

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QUESTION 1
A system administrator needs to develop a policy for when an application server is no longer needed. Which of the
following policies would need to be developed?
A. Backup policy
B. De-provisioning policy
C. Data retention policy
D. Provisioning policy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A large organization has gone through several mergers, acquisitions, and de-mergers over the past decade. As a result,

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Latest effective Cisco 400-101 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which three message type are used for prefix delegation in DHCPv6?(Choose threE.
A. Solicit
B. Renew
C. Advertise
D. DHCP Discover
E. DHCPAck
F. DHCP Offer
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 2
Which option describes how a VTPv3 device responds when it detects a VTPv2 device on a trunk port?
A. It sends VTPv2 packets only
B. It sends a Special packet that contains VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets information.
C. It sends VTPv3 packets only.
D. It sends VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

lead4pass 400-101 exam question - q1

Refer to exhibit. Which statement is true about a valid IPv6 address that can be configured on tunnel interface0 ?
A. 2001:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address
B. 6to4 tunneling allows you to use any IPv6 address
C. 2002:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPV6 address
D. There is not enough information to calculate the IPv6 address
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which statement about passive interfaces is true?
A. The interface with the IS-IS passive interface configuration sends the IP address of that interface in the link-state
protocol data units
B. The interface with the EIGRP passive interface configuration ignores routes after the exchange of hello packets.
C. The interface with the OSPF passive interface configuration appears as a not-so-stubby network.
D. Passive interface can be configured on the interface for IS-IS.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two protocols exclude the source and destination IPaddresses from the application data stream?
(Choose two)
A. TFTP
B. NTP
C. SMTP
D. SSH
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
From which component does an IS-IS router construct its link-state database?
A. LSAs
B. Hello packets
C. LSPs
D. SPTs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
R1#sh ip eigrp top all IP-EIGRP Topology Table for AS (192.168.13.1) Codes: P – Passive, A – Active, U – Update, Q-
Query, R – Reply, r – reply Status, s – sia Status P 10.0.0.0/8, 1 successors, FD is 3586560, serno 8 via 192.168.1.5
(3586560/3074560), Serial0/0 P 192.168.100.0/24, 2 successors, FD is 409600, serno 5 via 192.168.13.3
(409600/128256), FastEthernet0/1 via 192.168.12.3 (435200/409600), FastEthernet0/0
Refer to the exhibit. Which statements about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true?
A. The metric installed into the route table is 128256
B. The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600
C. The metric installed into the route table is 435200
D. The Reported Distance for the Successor is 128256
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two)
A. low-latency queuing
B. congestion-avoidance algorithm
C. fast retransmission
D. IP service level agreements
E. fast start
F. fast recovery
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which statements about PMTUD is true?
A. GRE tunnels use PMTUD to fragment data packets by default.
B. It increasesthe connection\\’s

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